AAVSB PAVE for Veterinarians QSE -
Qualifying Science Examination 200
Realistic Practice Questions with
Verified Answers and Explanations|
PDF.
1. A 5-year-old Holstein cow presents with anorexia, a drop in milk production,
and a fever of 104.5°F. Upon auscultation, a loud “squelching” sound is heard over
the left thoracic wall, synchronous with the heartbeat. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Traumatic reticuloperitonitis (Hardware disease)
B) Left-sided displaced abomasum
C) Bovine respiratory syncytial virus (BRSV)
D) Fibrinous pleuropneumonia
Correct Answer: D) Fibrinous pleuropneumonia
Explanation: The "squelching" or "bruit" sound heard on auscultation is characteristic of
fibrinous pleuropneumonia, often caused by Mannheimia haemolytica or Pasteurella
multocida. This sound results from friction between the inflamed visceral and parietal
pleura or the movement of fibrin clots. Traumatic reticuloperitonitis (A) typically presents
with a sudden drop in milk, arched back, and positive withers pinch test, but not a cardiac-
synchronous squelch. Left-sided displaced abomasum (B) produces a "ping" on percussion,
not a squelch. BRSV (C) typically causes interstitial pneumonia with respiratory distress,
not a pleural friction rub.
,2. Which of the following changes on a complete blood count (CBC) is most
consistent with a stress leukogram in a dog?
A) Neutrophilia, lymphocytosis, eosinophilia
B) Neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia
C) Neutropenia, lymphocytosis, eosinophilia
D) Neutropenia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia
Correct Answer: B) Neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia
Explanation: A classic stress leukogram, mediated by endogenous or exogenous
corticosteroids, is characterized by a mature neutrophilia (due to decreased margination
and increased bone marrow release), lymphopenia (due to lymphocyte apoptosis and
redistribution), and eosinopenia (due to decreased release from the bone marrow and
increased sequestration). Monocytosis may also be seen in some species like dogs. Option
A is the pattern seen with epinephrine release (excitement leukogram). Options C and D
reflect patterns seen with inflammation or bone marrow disorders.
3. A 3-year-old castrated male domestic shorthair cat is brought in for lethargy
and inappetence. On palpation, the bladder is firm and non-expressible. A
urinalysis reveals numerous struvite crystals. What is the primary
pathophysiological concern if this condition is not immediately addressed?
A) Acute kidney injury due to crystal nephropathy
B) Post-renal azotemia leading to hyperkalemia
C) Hepatic lipidosis secondary to anorexia
D) Hyperphosphatemia leading to metastatic calcification
Correct Answer: B) Post-renal azotemia leading to hyperkalemia
Explanation: The inability to express the bladder with struvite crystals in a male cat is
,indicative of feline urethral obstruction (FUO). The immediate life-threatening
pathophysiology is post-renal azotemia, where urine backs up into the kidneys, impairing
glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Critically, this leads to severe hyperkalemia due to the
inability to excrete potassium, coupled with metabolic acidosis (which shifts potassium
extracellularly). Hyperkalemia causes cardiac conduction disturbances (bradycardia,
widened QRS, potential asystole). While A, C, and D can be sequelae, the immediate, life-
threatening concern is cardiac arrest secondary to hyperkalemia from post-renal
obstruction.
4. A horse is receiving a continuous rate infusion (CRI) of lidocaine for post-
operative ileus. Which of the following adverse effects is most specific to lidocaine
toxicity in horses?
A) Seizures
B) Hypotension
C) Cardiac arrhythmias
D) Excitement and muscle fasciculations
Correct Answer: D) Excitement and muscle fasciculations
Explanation: While lidocaine toxicity in any species can lead to CNS signs (seizures) and
cardiovascular depression (hypotension, arrhythmias), horses are uniquely sensitive to the
excitatory effects. They often exhibit pronounced muscle fasciculations, sweating, and
severe excitement or agitation before other signs manifest. This is due to the lower
threshold for CNS stimulation in the equine species. While seizures (A) can occur, the
initial and most specific adverse effect is typically the fasciculations and behavioral
changes.
, 5. A biopsy from a skin mass on a dog shows a proliferation of well-differentiated
mast cells with oval granules in the cytoplasm. The pathologist notes anisocytosis
and a mitotic count of 8 per 10 high-power fields (HPF). According to the Kiupel
two-tier grading system, what is the prognosis?
A) Low-grade, excellent prognosis
B) High-grade, guarded to poor prognosis
C) Grade cannot be determined without lymph node aspirate
D) Intermediate grade, fair prognosis
Correct Answer: B) High-grade, guarded to poor prognosis
*Explanation: The Kiupel two-tier system for canine cutaneous mast cell tumors is a
widely accepted prognostic tool. Tumors are classified as high-grade if they meet at
least one of several criteria: >7 mitotic figures per 10 HPF, >3 multinucleated cells per
10 HPF, marked anisocytosis, or presence of giant cells. A mitotic count of 8/10 HPF
meets the criteria for a high-grade tumor, which is associated with a significantly shorter
survival time and a poorer prognosis compared to low-grade tumors. The Patnaik
system (I-III) is a three-tier system that is also used, but the question specifically asks
about the Kiupel system.*
6. A 7-year-old Labrador Retriever presents with a history of progressive exercise
intolerance, a non-productive cough that is worse at night, and tachypnea. On
thoracic radiographs, there is an enlarged left atrium and pulmonary edema
localized to the perihilar region. What is the most likely underlying valvular lesion?
A) Aortic stenosis
B) Mitral valve dysplasia
C) Myxomatous mitral valve degeneration
D) Tricuspid valve endocarditis
Qualifying Science Examination 200
Realistic Practice Questions with
Verified Answers and Explanations|
PDF.
1. A 5-year-old Holstein cow presents with anorexia, a drop in milk production,
and a fever of 104.5°F. Upon auscultation, a loud “squelching” sound is heard over
the left thoracic wall, synchronous with the heartbeat. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Traumatic reticuloperitonitis (Hardware disease)
B) Left-sided displaced abomasum
C) Bovine respiratory syncytial virus (BRSV)
D) Fibrinous pleuropneumonia
Correct Answer: D) Fibrinous pleuropneumonia
Explanation: The "squelching" or "bruit" sound heard on auscultation is characteristic of
fibrinous pleuropneumonia, often caused by Mannheimia haemolytica or Pasteurella
multocida. This sound results from friction between the inflamed visceral and parietal
pleura or the movement of fibrin clots. Traumatic reticuloperitonitis (A) typically presents
with a sudden drop in milk, arched back, and positive withers pinch test, but not a cardiac-
synchronous squelch. Left-sided displaced abomasum (B) produces a "ping" on percussion,
not a squelch. BRSV (C) typically causes interstitial pneumonia with respiratory distress,
not a pleural friction rub.
,2. Which of the following changes on a complete blood count (CBC) is most
consistent with a stress leukogram in a dog?
A) Neutrophilia, lymphocytosis, eosinophilia
B) Neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia
C) Neutropenia, lymphocytosis, eosinophilia
D) Neutropenia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia
Correct Answer: B) Neutrophilia, lymphopenia, eosinopenia
Explanation: A classic stress leukogram, mediated by endogenous or exogenous
corticosteroids, is characterized by a mature neutrophilia (due to decreased margination
and increased bone marrow release), lymphopenia (due to lymphocyte apoptosis and
redistribution), and eosinopenia (due to decreased release from the bone marrow and
increased sequestration). Monocytosis may also be seen in some species like dogs. Option
A is the pattern seen with epinephrine release (excitement leukogram). Options C and D
reflect patterns seen with inflammation or bone marrow disorders.
3. A 3-year-old castrated male domestic shorthair cat is brought in for lethargy
and inappetence. On palpation, the bladder is firm and non-expressible. A
urinalysis reveals numerous struvite crystals. What is the primary
pathophysiological concern if this condition is not immediately addressed?
A) Acute kidney injury due to crystal nephropathy
B) Post-renal azotemia leading to hyperkalemia
C) Hepatic lipidosis secondary to anorexia
D) Hyperphosphatemia leading to metastatic calcification
Correct Answer: B) Post-renal azotemia leading to hyperkalemia
Explanation: The inability to express the bladder with struvite crystals in a male cat is
,indicative of feline urethral obstruction (FUO). The immediate life-threatening
pathophysiology is post-renal azotemia, where urine backs up into the kidneys, impairing
glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Critically, this leads to severe hyperkalemia due to the
inability to excrete potassium, coupled with metabolic acidosis (which shifts potassium
extracellularly). Hyperkalemia causes cardiac conduction disturbances (bradycardia,
widened QRS, potential asystole). While A, C, and D can be sequelae, the immediate, life-
threatening concern is cardiac arrest secondary to hyperkalemia from post-renal
obstruction.
4. A horse is receiving a continuous rate infusion (CRI) of lidocaine for post-
operative ileus. Which of the following adverse effects is most specific to lidocaine
toxicity in horses?
A) Seizures
B) Hypotension
C) Cardiac arrhythmias
D) Excitement and muscle fasciculations
Correct Answer: D) Excitement and muscle fasciculations
Explanation: While lidocaine toxicity in any species can lead to CNS signs (seizures) and
cardiovascular depression (hypotension, arrhythmias), horses are uniquely sensitive to the
excitatory effects. They often exhibit pronounced muscle fasciculations, sweating, and
severe excitement or agitation before other signs manifest. This is due to the lower
threshold for CNS stimulation in the equine species. While seizures (A) can occur, the
initial and most specific adverse effect is typically the fasciculations and behavioral
changes.
, 5. A biopsy from a skin mass on a dog shows a proliferation of well-differentiated
mast cells with oval granules in the cytoplasm. The pathologist notes anisocytosis
and a mitotic count of 8 per 10 high-power fields (HPF). According to the Kiupel
two-tier grading system, what is the prognosis?
A) Low-grade, excellent prognosis
B) High-grade, guarded to poor prognosis
C) Grade cannot be determined without lymph node aspirate
D) Intermediate grade, fair prognosis
Correct Answer: B) High-grade, guarded to poor prognosis
*Explanation: The Kiupel two-tier system for canine cutaneous mast cell tumors is a
widely accepted prognostic tool. Tumors are classified as high-grade if they meet at
least one of several criteria: >7 mitotic figures per 10 HPF, >3 multinucleated cells per
10 HPF, marked anisocytosis, or presence of giant cells. A mitotic count of 8/10 HPF
meets the criteria for a high-grade tumor, which is associated with a significantly shorter
survival time and a poorer prognosis compared to low-grade tumors. The Patnaik
system (I-III) is a three-tier system that is also used, but the question specifically asks
about the Kiupel system.*
6. A 7-year-old Labrador Retriever presents with a history of progressive exercise
intolerance, a non-productive cough that is worse at night, and tachypnea. On
thoracic radiographs, there is an enlarged left atrium and pulmonary edema
localized to the perihilar region. What is the most likely underlying valvular lesion?
A) Aortic stenosis
B) Mitral valve dysplasia
C) Myxomatous mitral valve degeneration
D) Tricuspid valve endocarditis
