CEA EXAM 2026 150 EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS/ CEA
FNP TEST 2026 /NR 667 CEA EXAM (100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS)
Question 1
A 71-year-old female patient with a history of CHF exacerbation is found to have a new
murmur. During which phase of the cardiac cycle should the NP anticipate auscultating an
S3 or S4 gallop?
A) Systole
B) Diastole
C) Isovolumetric contraction
D) Midsystolic click phase
E) Early systole
Correct Answer: B) Diastole
Rationale: Both S3 and S4 are diastolic sounds. S3 occurs during the early phase of rapid
ventricular filling, often associated with fluid overload or HF. S4 occurs during late diastole
(atrial kick) when the atria contract against a stiff, non-compliant ventricle.
Question 2
In a healthy adult, the point of maximum impulse (PMI) is most likely to be palpated at
which anatomical location?
A) Left 2nd intercostal space, midaxillary line
B) Right 2nd intercostal space, midaxillary line
C) Left 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line
D) Right 4th intercostal space, midaxillary line
E) Left 4th intercostal space, sternal border
Correct Answer: C) Left 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line
Rationale: The PMI represents the pulsation of the left ventricle against the chest wall. In
healthy adults, it is localized at the 5th ICS at the MCL. Displacement laterally or
inferiorly suggests left ventricular hypertrophy or cardiomegaly.
Question 3
When auscultating the heart while viewing an EKG, the S1 heart sound should correlate
with which EKG landmark?
A) Start of the P wave
B) End of the T wave
C) Peak of the R wave
D) Start of the T wave
E) The ST segment
Correct Answer: C) Peak of the R wave
Rationale: The S1 sound represents the closure of the AV valves (mitral and tricuspid) at
the beginning of ventricular systole. This coincides with the peak of the R wave on an EKG,
which represents ventricular depolarization.
, Page 2
Question 4
A 72-year-old male presents with ST-segment depression in leads V3 and V4 and chest
discomfort during a stress test. Which of the following is NOT a priority medical decision
at this time?
A) Prescribe aspirin 81mg PO daily
B) Prescribe metoprolol 12.5mg PO BID
C) Refer to cardiology for angiography
D) Check for thyroid dysfunction
E) Evaluate for unstable angina protocols
Correct Answer: D) Check for thyroid dysfunction
Rationale: While thyroid dysfunction can impact cardiac health, it is not an acute priority
for a patient showing active ST-segment depression and symptomatic chest pain during
stress testing. Immediate priorities include antiplatelet therapy, beta-blockade, and
definitive cardiac imaging/intervention.
Question 5
During a physical exam, a patient says "ee" and the NP hears a nasally "a" through the
stethoscope. How should this finding be documented?
A) Positive stereognosis
B) Negative for egophony
C) Positive for egophony
D) Positive for bronchophony
E) Positive for tactile fremitus
Correct Answer: C) Positive for egophony
Rationale: Egophony is present when the spoken "ee" sound is heard as an "ay" sound
through the stethoscope. This occurs due to sound transmission through consolidated lung
tissue (e.g., pneumonia).
Question 6
What is the primary diagnostic purpose of performing percussion of the thorax during a
pulmonary examination?
A) To assess for cardiac angina
B) To assess for tactile fremitus
C) To identify if underlying tissue is air-filled, fluid-filled, or consolidated
D) To measure the strength of the intercostal muscles
E) To identify the borders of the gallbladder
Correct Answer: C) To identify if underlying tissue is air-filled, fluid-filled, or consolidated
Rationale: Percussion produces different notes based on the density of the tissue.
Resonance is normal; dullness suggests fluid or solids (effusion, pneumonia);
hyperresonance suggests excessive air (emphysema, pneumothorax).
, Page 3
Question 7
A 42-year-old male with interstitial lung disease undergoes a diaphragmatic excursion test.
Which result is most consistent with this restrictive lung disease?
A) Equal descent bilaterally with decreased overall inspiratory capacity
B) Ascension of 12 inches on expiration
C) Absent movement of the diaphragm bilaterally
D) Greater descent on the right side due to the liver
E) Hyperresonance on percussion throughout the excursion
Correct Answer: A) Approximately equal level of change in the descent of the diaphragm
bilaterally during maximal inspiration and expiration, with a decreased overall inspiratory
capacity
Rationale: Restrictive diseases like ILD limit the expansion of the lungs, resulting in a
symmetrical but reduced movement of the diaphragm compared to the normal 3-5 cm
range.
Question 8
A 50-year-old male presents with nonpitting periorbital edema and thinning of the lateral
third of the eyebrows. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A) Grave’s disease
B) Addison’s disease
C) Severe hypothyroidism
D) Cushing’s syndrome
E) Chronic renal failure
Correct Answer: C) Severe hypothyroidism
Rationale: Myxedema (nonpitting edema) and the "Queen Anne Sign" (thinning of the
lateral third of the eyebrows) are classic physical findings of severe
hypothyroidism/Hashimoto’s.
Question 9
A 40-year-old female presents with severe exophthalmos (bulging eyes). Which condition
should be at the top of the differential diagnosis?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Bilateral conjunctivitis
D) Myxedema
E) Cushing's Disease
Correct Answer: B) Hyperthyroidism
Rationale: Exophthalmos (proptosis) is a hallmark of Grave's disease (hyperthyroidism)
caused by autoimmune-mediated inflammation and fat accumulation in the extraocular
muscles and retro-orbital tissues.
, Page 4
Question 10
In explaining PFT results to a COPD patient, how would you define the volume of air
representing a maximal inspiration followed by a full exhalation?
A) FEV1
B) Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
C) Functional Reserve Capacity
D) Tidal Volume
E) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
Correct Answer: B) Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
Rationale: FVC is the total amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled from the lungs after
taking the deepest breath possible.
Question 11
A patient presents with a neck goiter, anxiety, tremors, and palpitations. Which
complication is this patient most at risk for developing if left untreated?
A) Myxedema coma
B) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C) Thyrotoxicosis
D) Iodine deficiency anemia
E) Addisonian crisis
Correct Answer: C) Thyrotoxicosis
Rationale: The clinical triad of goiter, palpitations, and tremors suggests hyperthyroidism.
Thyrotoxicosis is the clinical state of excessive thyroid hormone, which can lead to a life-
threatening thyroid storm.
Question 12
Which of the following is a classic clinical sign of hyperthyroidism?
A) Lethargy
B) Unplanned weight gain
C) Hypersomnia
D) Tachycardia
E) Cold intolerance
Correct Answer: D) Tachycardia
Rationale: Hyperthyroidism accelerates metabolism, leading to tachycardia, weight loss,
heat intolerance, and insomnia. Hypersomnia and weight gain are associated with
hypothyroidism.
Question 13
A patient is diagnosed with Addison’s disease. Which physical finding is expected?
A) Moon face
B) Abdominal striae
C) Low body temperature
FNP TEST 2026 /NR 667 CEA EXAM (100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS)
Question 1
A 71-year-old female patient with a history of CHF exacerbation is found to have a new
murmur. During which phase of the cardiac cycle should the NP anticipate auscultating an
S3 or S4 gallop?
A) Systole
B) Diastole
C) Isovolumetric contraction
D) Midsystolic click phase
E) Early systole
Correct Answer: B) Diastole
Rationale: Both S3 and S4 are diastolic sounds. S3 occurs during the early phase of rapid
ventricular filling, often associated with fluid overload or HF. S4 occurs during late diastole
(atrial kick) when the atria contract against a stiff, non-compliant ventricle.
Question 2
In a healthy adult, the point of maximum impulse (PMI) is most likely to be palpated at
which anatomical location?
A) Left 2nd intercostal space, midaxillary line
B) Right 2nd intercostal space, midaxillary line
C) Left 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line
D) Right 4th intercostal space, midaxillary line
E) Left 4th intercostal space, sternal border
Correct Answer: C) Left 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line
Rationale: The PMI represents the pulsation of the left ventricle against the chest wall. In
healthy adults, it is localized at the 5th ICS at the MCL. Displacement laterally or
inferiorly suggests left ventricular hypertrophy or cardiomegaly.
Question 3
When auscultating the heart while viewing an EKG, the S1 heart sound should correlate
with which EKG landmark?
A) Start of the P wave
B) End of the T wave
C) Peak of the R wave
D) Start of the T wave
E) The ST segment
Correct Answer: C) Peak of the R wave
Rationale: The S1 sound represents the closure of the AV valves (mitral and tricuspid) at
the beginning of ventricular systole. This coincides with the peak of the R wave on an EKG,
which represents ventricular depolarization.
, Page 2
Question 4
A 72-year-old male presents with ST-segment depression in leads V3 and V4 and chest
discomfort during a stress test. Which of the following is NOT a priority medical decision
at this time?
A) Prescribe aspirin 81mg PO daily
B) Prescribe metoprolol 12.5mg PO BID
C) Refer to cardiology for angiography
D) Check for thyroid dysfunction
E) Evaluate for unstable angina protocols
Correct Answer: D) Check for thyroid dysfunction
Rationale: While thyroid dysfunction can impact cardiac health, it is not an acute priority
for a patient showing active ST-segment depression and symptomatic chest pain during
stress testing. Immediate priorities include antiplatelet therapy, beta-blockade, and
definitive cardiac imaging/intervention.
Question 5
During a physical exam, a patient says "ee" and the NP hears a nasally "a" through the
stethoscope. How should this finding be documented?
A) Positive stereognosis
B) Negative for egophony
C) Positive for egophony
D) Positive for bronchophony
E) Positive for tactile fremitus
Correct Answer: C) Positive for egophony
Rationale: Egophony is present when the spoken "ee" sound is heard as an "ay" sound
through the stethoscope. This occurs due to sound transmission through consolidated lung
tissue (e.g., pneumonia).
Question 6
What is the primary diagnostic purpose of performing percussion of the thorax during a
pulmonary examination?
A) To assess for cardiac angina
B) To assess for tactile fremitus
C) To identify if underlying tissue is air-filled, fluid-filled, or consolidated
D) To measure the strength of the intercostal muscles
E) To identify the borders of the gallbladder
Correct Answer: C) To identify if underlying tissue is air-filled, fluid-filled, or consolidated
Rationale: Percussion produces different notes based on the density of the tissue.
Resonance is normal; dullness suggests fluid or solids (effusion, pneumonia);
hyperresonance suggests excessive air (emphysema, pneumothorax).
, Page 3
Question 7
A 42-year-old male with interstitial lung disease undergoes a diaphragmatic excursion test.
Which result is most consistent with this restrictive lung disease?
A) Equal descent bilaterally with decreased overall inspiratory capacity
B) Ascension of 12 inches on expiration
C) Absent movement of the diaphragm bilaterally
D) Greater descent on the right side due to the liver
E) Hyperresonance on percussion throughout the excursion
Correct Answer: A) Approximately equal level of change in the descent of the diaphragm
bilaterally during maximal inspiration and expiration, with a decreased overall inspiratory
capacity
Rationale: Restrictive diseases like ILD limit the expansion of the lungs, resulting in a
symmetrical but reduced movement of the diaphragm compared to the normal 3-5 cm
range.
Question 8
A 50-year-old male presents with nonpitting periorbital edema and thinning of the lateral
third of the eyebrows. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A) Grave’s disease
B) Addison’s disease
C) Severe hypothyroidism
D) Cushing’s syndrome
E) Chronic renal failure
Correct Answer: C) Severe hypothyroidism
Rationale: Myxedema (nonpitting edema) and the "Queen Anne Sign" (thinning of the
lateral third of the eyebrows) are classic physical findings of severe
hypothyroidism/Hashimoto’s.
Question 9
A 40-year-old female presents with severe exophthalmos (bulging eyes). Which condition
should be at the top of the differential diagnosis?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Bilateral conjunctivitis
D) Myxedema
E) Cushing's Disease
Correct Answer: B) Hyperthyroidism
Rationale: Exophthalmos (proptosis) is a hallmark of Grave's disease (hyperthyroidism)
caused by autoimmune-mediated inflammation and fat accumulation in the extraocular
muscles and retro-orbital tissues.
, Page 4
Question 10
In explaining PFT results to a COPD patient, how would you define the volume of air
representing a maximal inspiration followed by a full exhalation?
A) FEV1
B) Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
C) Functional Reserve Capacity
D) Tidal Volume
E) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
Correct Answer: B) Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)
Rationale: FVC is the total amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled from the lungs after
taking the deepest breath possible.
Question 11
A patient presents with a neck goiter, anxiety, tremors, and palpitations. Which
complication is this patient most at risk for developing if left untreated?
A) Myxedema coma
B) Hashimoto's thyroiditis
C) Thyrotoxicosis
D) Iodine deficiency anemia
E) Addisonian crisis
Correct Answer: C) Thyrotoxicosis
Rationale: The clinical triad of goiter, palpitations, and tremors suggests hyperthyroidism.
Thyrotoxicosis is the clinical state of excessive thyroid hormone, which can lead to a life-
threatening thyroid storm.
Question 12
Which of the following is a classic clinical sign of hyperthyroidism?
A) Lethargy
B) Unplanned weight gain
C) Hypersomnia
D) Tachycardia
E) Cold intolerance
Correct Answer: D) Tachycardia
Rationale: Hyperthyroidism accelerates metabolism, leading to tachycardia, weight loss,
heat intolerance, and insomnia. Hypersomnia and weight gain are associated with
hypothyroidism.
Question 13
A patient is diagnosed with Addison’s disease. Which physical finding is expected?
A) Moon face
B) Abdominal striae
C) Low body temperature
