NR 507 Week 8 Edapt – CNS Brain Disorders, Convulsions, Headaches
& Cranial Nerves Exam 2026 |Chamberlain
1. Which clinical manifestation is a hallmark sign of meningeal irritation where
the patient’s hips and knees flex involuntarily when the neck is flexed?
A. Kernig sign
B. Babinski sign
C. Brudzinski sign
D. Hoffman sign
Answer: C
Rationale: The Brudzinski sign is positive when passive flexion of the neck results in
spontaneous flexion of the hips and knees, indicating meningeal irritation.
2. In the pathophysiology of Alzheimer disease, what is the primary component
of the extracellular plaques found in the brain?
A. Tau protein
B. Alpha-synuclein
C. Huntingtin protein
D. Amyloid beta protein
Answer: D
Rationale: Alzheimer disease is characterized by the accumulation of extracellular amyloid
beta plaques and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles made of tau protein.
,3. Which neurotransmitter deficiency is most closely associated with the motor
symptoms of Parkinson disease?
A. Dopamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. GABA
D. Serotonin
Answer: A
Rationale: Parkinson disease involves the degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons
in the substantia nigra pars compacta of the basal ganglia.
4. A patient presents with a ‘band-like’ pressure around the head that is
bilateral and non-pulsating. Which type of headache is most likely?
A. Migraine without aura
B. Cluster headache
C. Tension-type headache
D. Secondary headache
Answer: C
Rationale: Tension-type headaches are typically described as a steady, non-pulsating,
bilateral ‘band-like’ pressure or tightness.
5. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the motor innervation of the muscles of
facial expression?
A. CN V (Trigeminal)
B. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
C. CN VII (Facial)
D. CN XII (Hypoglossal)
E.
Answer: C
, Rationale: The Facial nerve (CN VII) provides motor control to the muscles of facial
expression; CN V provides sensory to the face and motor to muscles of mastication.
6. What is the primary pathophysiological process occurring in Multiple Sclerosis
(MS)?
A. Degeneration of lower motor neurons in the spinal cord
B. Peripheral nerve demyelination following a viral infection
C. Destruction of acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction
D. Autoimmune-mediated demyelination of the central nervous system
Answer: D
Rationale: MS is a chronic inflammatory disease characterized by autoimmune-mediated
demyelination and axonal loss within the central nervous system.
7. A seizure that begins in one hemisphere of the brain and is associated with
impairment of consciousness is classified as a:
A. Focal impaired awareness seizure
B. Focal aware seizure
C. Generalized absence seizure
D. Myoclonic seizure
Answer: A
Rationale: Focal impaired awareness seizures (formerly complex partial) originate in one
hemisphere and involve a loss or impairment of consciousness.
8. Which cranial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to protrude their tongue
and check for deviation?
A. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
B. CN X (Vagus)
C. CN XI (Accessory)
D. CN XII (Hypoglossal)
Answer: D
& Cranial Nerves Exam 2026 |Chamberlain
1. Which clinical manifestation is a hallmark sign of meningeal irritation where
the patient’s hips and knees flex involuntarily when the neck is flexed?
A. Kernig sign
B. Babinski sign
C. Brudzinski sign
D. Hoffman sign
Answer: C
Rationale: The Brudzinski sign is positive when passive flexion of the neck results in
spontaneous flexion of the hips and knees, indicating meningeal irritation.
2. In the pathophysiology of Alzheimer disease, what is the primary component
of the extracellular plaques found in the brain?
A. Tau protein
B. Alpha-synuclein
C. Huntingtin protein
D. Amyloid beta protein
Answer: D
Rationale: Alzheimer disease is characterized by the accumulation of extracellular amyloid
beta plaques and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles made of tau protein.
,3. Which neurotransmitter deficiency is most closely associated with the motor
symptoms of Parkinson disease?
A. Dopamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. GABA
D. Serotonin
Answer: A
Rationale: Parkinson disease involves the degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons
in the substantia nigra pars compacta of the basal ganglia.
4. A patient presents with a ‘band-like’ pressure around the head that is
bilateral and non-pulsating. Which type of headache is most likely?
A. Migraine without aura
B. Cluster headache
C. Tension-type headache
D. Secondary headache
Answer: C
Rationale: Tension-type headaches are typically described as a steady, non-pulsating,
bilateral ‘band-like’ pressure or tightness.
5. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the motor innervation of the muscles of
facial expression?
A. CN V (Trigeminal)
B. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
C. CN VII (Facial)
D. CN XII (Hypoglossal)
E.
Answer: C
, Rationale: The Facial nerve (CN VII) provides motor control to the muscles of facial
expression; CN V provides sensory to the face and motor to muscles of mastication.
6. What is the primary pathophysiological process occurring in Multiple Sclerosis
(MS)?
A. Degeneration of lower motor neurons in the spinal cord
B. Peripheral nerve demyelination following a viral infection
C. Destruction of acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction
D. Autoimmune-mediated demyelination of the central nervous system
Answer: D
Rationale: MS is a chronic inflammatory disease characterized by autoimmune-mediated
demyelination and axonal loss within the central nervous system.
7. A seizure that begins in one hemisphere of the brain and is associated with
impairment of consciousness is classified as a:
A. Focal impaired awareness seizure
B. Focal aware seizure
C. Generalized absence seizure
D. Myoclonic seizure
Answer: A
Rationale: Focal impaired awareness seizures (formerly complex partial) originate in one
hemisphere and involve a loss or impairment of consciousness.
8. Which cranial nerve is assessed by asking the patient to protrude their tongue
and check for deviation?
A. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
B. CN X (Vagus)
C. CN XI (Accessory)
D. CN XII (Hypoglossal)
Answer: D
