NR 546 Week 3 Antipsychotics Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2026
|Chamberlain
1. What is the primary mechanism of action for First-Generation Antipsychotics
(FGAs)?
A. Post-synaptic Dopamine D2 receptor antagonism
B. Serotonin 5-HT2A receptor antagonism
C. Dopamine D2 receptor partial agonism
D. Norepinephrine reuptake inhibition
Answer: A
Rationale: FGAs work primarily by blocking D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway to
reduce positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
2. Which Second-Generation Antipsychotic (SGA) is most associated with
significant weight gain and metabolic syndrome?
A. Aripiprazole
B. Ziprasidone
C. Lurasidone
D. Olanzapine
Answer: D
Rationale: Olanzapine and Clozapine carry the highest risk for weight gain, hyperglycemia,
and dyslipidemia among SGAs.
,3. A patient taking Clozapine must have regular monitoring of which lab value
due to the risk of agranulocytosis?
A. Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
B. Serum Creatinine
C. Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC)
D. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
Answer: C
Rationale: Clozapine requires strict ANC monitoring because of the risk of severe
neutropenia (agranulocytosis).
4. Which pathway is associated with the development of Extrapyramidal
Symptoms (EPS) when D2 receptors are blocked?
A. Mesolimbic pathway
B. Nigrostriatal pathway
C. Mesocortical pathway
D. Tuberoinfundibular pathway
Answer: B
Rationale: Blockade of D2 receptors in the Nigrostriatal pathway leads to motor side
effects known as EPS.
5. What is the unique mechanism of action of Aripiprazole compared to most
other SGAs?
A. Complete D2 receptor blockade
B. D2 receptor partial agonism
C. GABA-A receptor modulation
D. Selective Norepinephrine reuptake inhibition
Answer: B
Rationale: Aripiprazole acts as a D2 partial agonist, meaning it stabilizes dopamine activity
rather than just blocking it.
, 6. Which antipsychotic medication requires being taken with at least 500
calories of food to ensure adequate absorption?
A. Haloperidol
B. Quetiapine
C. Risperidone
D. Ziprasidone
Answer: D
Rationale: Ziprasidone absorption is significantly increased when taken with a meal of at
least 500 calories.
7. Hyperprolactinemia is a common side effect of which SGA due to its potent
D2 blockade in the tuberoinfundibular pathway?
A. Quetiapine
B. Aripiprazole
C. Clozapine
D. Risperidone
Answer: D
Rationale: Risperidone and Paliperidone are the SGAs most likely to cause elevated
prolactin levels.
8. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is characterized by which of the
following symptoms?
A. Hypothermia and muscle flaccidity
B. Hypotension and bradycardia
C. Lead-pipe rigidity, hyperpyrexia, and autonomic instability
D. Rash and joint pain
Answer: C
Rationale: NMS is a medical emergency characterized by extreme muscle rigidity, high
fever, and unstable vital signs.
|Chamberlain
1. What is the primary mechanism of action for First-Generation Antipsychotics
(FGAs)?
A. Post-synaptic Dopamine D2 receptor antagonism
B. Serotonin 5-HT2A receptor antagonism
C. Dopamine D2 receptor partial agonism
D. Norepinephrine reuptake inhibition
Answer: A
Rationale: FGAs work primarily by blocking D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway to
reduce positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
2. Which Second-Generation Antipsychotic (SGA) is most associated with
significant weight gain and metabolic syndrome?
A. Aripiprazole
B. Ziprasidone
C. Lurasidone
D. Olanzapine
Answer: D
Rationale: Olanzapine and Clozapine carry the highest risk for weight gain, hyperglycemia,
and dyslipidemia among SGAs.
,3. A patient taking Clozapine must have regular monitoring of which lab value
due to the risk of agranulocytosis?
A. Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
B. Serum Creatinine
C. Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC)
D. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
Answer: C
Rationale: Clozapine requires strict ANC monitoring because of the risk of severe
neutropenia (agranulocytosis).
4. Which pathway is associated with the development of Extrapyramidal
Symptoms (EPS) when D2 receptors are blocked?
A. Mesolimbic pathway
B. Nigrostriatal pathway
C. Mesocortical pathway
D. Tuberoinfundibular pathway
Answer: B
Rationale: Blockade of D2 receptors in the Nigrostriatal pathway leads to motor side
effects known as EPS.
5. What is the unique mechanism of action of Aripiprazole compared to most
other SGAs?
A. Complete D2 receptor blockade
B. D2 receptor partial agonism
C. GABA-A receptor modulation
D. Selective Norepinephrine reuptake inhibition
Answer: B
Rationale: Aripiprazole acts as a D2 partial agonist, meaning it stabilizes dopamine activity
rather than just blocking it.
, 6. Which antipsychotic medication requires being taken with at least 500
calories of food to ensure adequate absorption?
A. Haloperidol
B. Quetiapine
C. Risperidone
D. Ziprasidone
Answer: D
Rationale: Ziprasidone absorption is significantly increased when taken with a meal of at
least 500 calories.
7. Hyperprolactinemia is a common side effect of which SGA due to its potent
D2 blockade in the tuberoinfundibular pathway?
A. Quetiapine
B. Aripiprazole
C. Clozapine
D. Risperidone
Answer: D
Rationale: Risperidone and Paliperidone are the SGAs most likely to cause elevated
prolactin levels.
8. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is characterized by which of the
following symptoms?
A. Hypothermia and muscle flaccidity
B. Hypotension and bradycardia
C. Lead-pipe rigidity, hyperpyrexia, and autonomic instability
D. Rash and joint pain
Answer: C
Rationale: NMS is a medical emergency characterized by extreme muscle rigidity, high
fever, and unstable vital signs.
