PTCB EXAM COMPLETE TEST BANK WITH REAL
EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS UPDATED
PHARMACY TECHNICIAN STUDY WITH RATIONALES
A pharmacy contracts to buy the majority of its formulary from a particular wholesaler. What type of
agreement is this?
A. Preferred agreement
B. Preferred vendor contract
C. Preferential agreement
D. Prime vendor agreement {{Correct Ans- D. Prime vendor agreement
Rationale:
A prime vendor agreement is one in which a pharmacy agrees to purchase almost exclusively from a
specific vendor. The vendor in turn provides the pharmacy with discounted pricing.
What is the gross profit for 30 tablets of carisoprodol 350 mg with an acquisition cost of $7.85/100
tablets, AWP = $9.93/100 tablets, and a retail price of $15.99/30 tablets?
A. $6.06
B. $8.14
C. $13.01
D. $13.63 {{Correct Ans- D. $13.63
Rationale:
Gross profit is equal to the selling price minus the price paid for the product. The acquisition price is the
price paid for the product. The acquisition cost is based on 100 tablets and must be prorated for 30
tablets ($7.85 × 30/100 = $2.36). SP ($15.99) - AC ($2.36) = $13.63.
Which of the following pieces of legislation is known as the "prescription drug amendment"?
A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment
B. Hatch-Waxman Amendment
C. Kefauver-Harris Amendment
,D. Mail Order Pharmacy Amendment {{Correct Ans- A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment
Rationale:
The Durham-Humphrey Amendment clearly defined prescriptions and over-the counter medications. A
prescription medication is required to bear the federal legend on the container. Over-the-counter
medications are considered safe to use without a physician's supervision.
Which of the following forms of Medicare provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin,
vaccines, and select medical supplies?
A. Medicare Part A
B. Medicare Part B
C. Medicare Part C
D. Medicare Part D {{Correct Ans- D. Medicare Part D
Rationale:
Medicare Part D provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin, vaccines, and select medical
supplies. All medications are not covered under Medicare Part D. Medicare Part A covers inpati ent
hospital care, skilled nursing facilities, hospice, and home health care. Medicare Part B provides for
physician services, outpatient care, and some physical and occupational therapy. Medicare Advantage
(Part C) allows participants in Medicare Part A and B to obtain coverage through an HMO or PPO that
provides additional services at a higher cost.
For which of the following drugs is it mandatory that a customer receive a PPI?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Lithonate
C. Premarin
D. Synthroid {{Correct Ans- C. Premarin
Rationale:
All prescriptions containing estrogens require the pharmacy to provide the patient with a patient
product insert (PPI).
What standards must be followed during extemporaneous compounding?
A. DEA
B. FDA
C. GMP
D. OBRA '90 {{Correct Ans- C. GMP
,Rationale:
GMP stands for good manufacturing practices and is adhered to for compounding prescriptions. The
DEA is responsible for the Controlled Substances Act. The FDA ensures food and medications are pure,
safe, and effective. OBRA '90 discusses drug utilization review and counseling patients.
What is the purpose of a group purchasing organization (GPO)?
A. Negotiates prices for hospital pharmacies
B. Purchases medications for hospital pharmacies
C. Purchases medications for community pharmacies
D. Purchases medications for managed care pharmacies {{Correct Ans- A. Negotiates prices for hospital
pharmacies
Rationale:
Group purchasing organizations (GPOs) negotiate prices for hospitals. They do not make the actual
purchase of medications for hospitals.
What is the route of administration for a prescription with the following directions: "i supp pr q 6 hr
prn"?
A. Orally
B. Rectally
C. Urethrally
D. Vaginall {{Correct Ans- B. Rectally
Rationale:
"pr" means per rectum.
What is the meaning of PDA?
A. Personal digital aid B.
Personal digital assistant
C. Physician digital assistant
D. Pharmaceutical data assistant {{Correct Ans- B. Personal digital assistant
Rationale:
PDA is an acronym for personal digital assistant.
Which of the following medications is not a bronchodilator?
A. Albuterol
, B. Ipratropium
C. Montelukast
D. Salmeterol {{Correct Ans- C. Montelukast
Rationale:
Montelukast (Singulair) is a leukotriene inhibitor.
Which organ can be affected by a condition of flutter?
A. Esophagus
B. Heart
C. Intestine
D. Kidneys {{Correct Ans- B. Heart
Rationale:
A flutter is a type of arrhythmia in which the patient's heart is beating at 200 to 350 beats/min.
Which answer best describes the information required during the sale of an "exempt narcotic"?
A. Dispensing date, printed name, signature and address of the buyer, name and quantity of the
product sold, and the pharmacist's signature
B. Dispensing date, signature and phone number of the buyer, product name, and product
company with lot number
C. Dispensing date, signature of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, price of the
product sold, and lot number of the product sold
D. Dispensing date, buyer signature, pharmacist signature, product name and amount, and
expiration date of the product {{Correct Ans- A. Dispensing date, printed name, signature and address of
the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, and the pharmacist's signature
Rationale:
The sale of an "exempt narcotic" requires that an individual be at least 18 years of age and a resident of
the community and that only one 4-oz bottle be sold in the original manufacturer's bottle every 48
hours. The patient must complete the exempt narcotic log (record), which includes the date of the
purchase and the patient's name and address. The pharmacist must make sure that the name, quantity
of the product, and selling price of the product is entered in the "exempt narcotic book." The pharmacist
must sign his or her name in the book as the seller of the "exempt narcotic."
What does "K" represent on a patient's medical chart?
EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS UPDATED
PHARMACY TECHNICIAN STUDY WITH RATIONALES
A pharmacy contracts to buy the majority of its formulary from a particular wholesaler. What type of
agreement is this?
A. Preferred agreement
B. Preferred vendor contract
C. Preferential agreement
D. Prime vendor agreement {{Correct Ans- D. Prime vendor agreement
Rationale:
A prime vendor agreement is one in which a pharmacy agrees to purchase almost exclusively from a
specific vendor. The vendor in turn provides the pharmacy with discounted pricing.
What is the gross profit for 30 tablets of carisoprodol 350 mg with an acquisition cost of $7.85/100
tablets, AWP = $9.93/100 tablets, and a retail price of $15.99/30 tablets?
A. $6.06
B. $8.14
C. $13.01
D. $13.63 {{Correct Ans- D. $13.63
Rationale:
Gross profit is equal to the selling price minus the price paid for the product. The acquisition price is the
price paid for the product. The acquisition cost is based on 100 tablets and must be prorated for 30
tablets ($7.85 × 30/100 = $2.36). SP ($15.99) - AC ($2.36) = $13.63.
Which of the following pieces of legislation is known as the "prescription drug amendment"?
A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment
B. Hatch-Waxman Amendment
C. Kefauver-Harris Amendment
,D. Mail Order Pharmacy Amendment {{Correct Ans- A. Durham-Humphrey Amendment
Rationale:
The Durham-Humphrey Amendment clearly defined prescriptions and over-the counter medications. A
prescription medication is required to bear the federal legend on the container. Over-the-counter
medications are considered safe to use without a physician's supervision.
Which of the following forms of Medicare provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin,
vaccines, and select medical supplies?
A. Medicare Part A
B. Medicare Part B
C. Medicare Part C
D. Medicare Part D {{Correct Ans- D. Medicare Part D
Rationale:
Medicare Part D provides for prescription medications, biologicals, insulin, vaccines, and select medical
supplies. All medications are not covered under Medicare Part D. Medicare Part A covers inpati ent
hospital care, skilled nursing facilities, hospice, and home health care. Medicare Part B provides for
physician services, outpatient care, and some physical and occupational therapy. Medicare Advantage
(Part C) allows participants in Medicare Part A and B to obtain coverage through an HMO or PPO that
provides additional services at a higher cost.
For which of the following drugs is it mandatory that a customer receive a PPI?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Lithonate
C. Premarin
D. Synthroid {{Correct Ans- C. Premarin
Rationale:
All prescriptions containing estrogens require the pharmacy to provide the patient with a patient
product insert (PPI).
What standards must be followed during extemporaneous compounding?
A. DEA
B. FDA
C. GMP
D. OBRA '90 {{Correct Ans- C. GMP
,Rationale:
GMP stands for good manufacturing practices and is adhered to for compounding prescriptions. The
DEA is responsible for the Controlled Substances Act. The FDA ensures food and medications are pure,
safe, and effective. OBRA '90 discusses drug utilization review and counseling patients.
What is the purpose of a group purchasing organization (GPO)?
A. Negotiates prices for hospital pharmacies
B. Purchases medications for hospital pharmacies
C. Purchases medications for community pharmacies
D. Purchases medications for managed care pharmacies {{Correct Ans- A. Negotiates prices for hospital
pharmacies
Rationale:
Group purchasing organizations (GPOs) negotiate prices for hospitals. They do not make the actual
purchase of medications for hospitals.
What is the route of administration for a prescription with the following directions: "i supp pr q 6 hr
prn"?
A. Orally
B. Rectally
C. Urethrally
D. Vaginall {{Correct Ans- B. Rectally
Rationale:
"pr" means per rectum.
What is the meaning of PDA?
A. Personal digital aid B.
Personal digital assistant
C. Physician digital assistant
D. Pharmaceutical data assistant {{Correct Ans- B. Personal digital assistant
Rationale:
PDA is an acronym for personal digital assistant.
Which of the following medications is not a bronchodilator?
A. Albuterol
, B. Ipratropium
C. Montelukast
D. Salmeterol {{Correct Ans- C. Montelukast
Rationale:
Montelukast (Singulair) is a leukotriene inhibitor.
Which organ can be affected by a condition of flutter?
A. Esophagus
B. Heart
C. Intestine
D. Kidneys {{Correct Ans- B. Heart
Rationale:
A flutter is a type of arrhythmia in which the patient's heart is beating at 200 to 350 beats/min.
Which answer best describes the information required during the sale of an "exempt narcotic"?
A. Dispensing date, printed name, signature and address of the buyer, name and quantity of the
product sold, and the pharmacist's signature
B. Dispensing date, signature and phone number of the buyer, product name, and product
company with lot number
C. Dispensing date, signature of the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, price of the
product sold, and lot number of the product sold
D. Dispensing date, buyer signature, pharmacist signature, product name and amount, and
expiration date of the product {{Correct Ans- A. Dispensing date, printed name, signature and address of
the buyer, name and quantity of the product sold, and the pharmacist's signature
Rationale:
The sale of an "exempt narcotic" requires that an individual be at least 18 years of age and a resident of
the community and that only one 4-oz bottle be sold in the original manufacturer's bottle every 48
hours. The patient must complete the exempt narcotic log (record), which includes the date of the
purchase and the patient's name and address. The pharmacist must make sure that the name, quantity
of the product, and selling price of the product is entered in the "exempt narcotic book." The pharmacist
must sign his or her name in the book as the seller of the "exempt narcotic."
What does "K" represent on a patient's medical chart?
