HESI RN PHARMACOLOGY NGN Version 1,2 &3
Newest With Complete All Questions And Correct
Detailed Answers| Brand New Version!
A client who is hypertensive receives a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide. When teaching
about the side effects of this drug, which symptoms are most important for the nurse to instruct
the client to report?
A. Fatigue and muscle weakness
B. Anxiety and heart palpitations
C. Abdominal cramping and diarrhea
D. Confusion and personality changes A. Fatigue and muscle weakness
Thiazide diuretics, such as HCTZ, cause potassium wasting in the urine, so the client should be
instructed to report fatigue and muscle weakness, which are characteristic of hypokalemia.
Although options B, C, and D should be reported, they are not indicative of hypokalemia, which
is a side effect of hiazides that can cause cardiac dysrhythmias.
A 55-year-old client was diagnosed with schizophrenia 5 years earlier. Numerous
hospitalizations have occurred since the diagnosis because of noncompliance with the prescribed
medication regimen. Which drug might work best for this particular client?
A. Chlorpromazine HCl
B. Lithium carbonate
C. Fluphenazine decanoate
D. Diazepam C. Fluphenazine decanoate
Fluphenazine, an antipsychotic drug that can be given IM, has a rapid onset (1 to 2 hours) and a
long duration of action (up to 3 or 4 weeks), so it would be the drug of choice for a noncompliant
psychotic client. Option A is an antipsychotic drug used to treat schizophrenia and is usually
administered PO (IM doses are short-acting). The client must be compliant in taking this drug for
it to be effective. Option B is most effective with manic and depressive bipolar affective
disorders. Option D is an antianxiety drug and would not be effective for a psychotic disorder.
The nurse is administering the early morning dose of insulin aspart, 5 units subcutaneously, to a
client with diabetes mellitus type 1. The client's fingerstick serum glucose level is 140 mg/dL.
Considering the onset of insulin aspart, when should the nurse ensure that the client's breakfast
be given?
A. 5 minutes after subcutaneous administration
B. 30 minutes after subcutaneous administration
C. 1 to 2 hours after administration
D. At any time because of a flat peak of action A. 5 minutes after subcutaneous
administration
Insulin aspart is a very rapidly acting insulin, with an onset of 5 to 15 minutes. Insulin aspart
should be administered when the client's tray is available. Insulin aspart peaks in 45 minutes to
1
,1½ hours and has a duration of 3 to 4 hours. The client should have eaten to ensure absorption of
the meal so that serum glucose levels will coincide with the peak. Insulin glargine has a flat peak
of action and is usually given at bedtime.
A mother brings her 18-month-old child to the community health center because the child has
had "bad diarrhea" for the last 3 days. She states, "I bought some of this liquid at the pharmacy
and gave my daughter a half-ounce." The nurse sees that the bottle contains loperamide. Which
intervention is most important for the nurse to implement initially?
A. Tell the mother never to give this drug to her toddler.
B. Ask if any other siblings have experienced diarrhea.
C. Take the child's oral and tympanic temperatures.
D. Ask the mother when the child last voided. D. Ask the mother when the child last
voided.
Determining when the child last voided is most important because urine output is decreased with
dehydration and an 18-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea could be severely dehydrated.
Although the manufacturer states that loperamide should not be given to a child younger than 2
years except under the direction of a health care provider, option A is not the best answer for this
question. In addition, loperamide causes an anticholinergic effect of urinary retention. Data
obtained in options B and C are not as high a priority as option D in this situation.
In administering the antiinfective agent chloramphenicol IV to a client with bacterial meningitis,
the nurse observes the client closely for signs of bone marrow depression. Which laboratory data
would be most important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Platelet count
B. Blood urea nitrogen level
C. Culture and sensitivity
D. Serum calcium level A. Platelet count
Chloramphenicol can cause irreversible, fatal bone marrow depression, so the nurse should
monitor the client's platelet count. Options B, C, and D do not provide data related to bone
marrow depression when monitoring a client who has been prescribed this medication.
Which assessment datum indicates to the nurse that a dose of granisetron administered IV prior
to chemotherapy has had the desired effect?
A. Oral mucosa pink and intact
B. Scalp intact without alopecia
C. Client denies nausea
D. Client denies pain C. Client denies nausea
Granisetron is an antiemetic administered before chemotherapy to prevent chemotherapy-
induced nausea and vomiting. Chemotherapy can cause oral sores, but granisetron does not
prevent this problem. Granisetron does not affect option B or D.
During administration of theophylline, the nurse should monitor for signs of toxicity. Which
symptom would cause the nurse to suspect theophylline toxicity?
2
,A. Dry mouth
B. Urinary retention
C. Restlessness
D. Sedation C. Restlessness
Restlessness is a sign of theophylline intoxication. Other signs of toxicity are anorexia, nausea,
vomiting, insomnia, tachycardia, arrhythmias, and seizures. Options A, B, and D are common
side effects of antihistamines but do not indicate theophylline intoxication.
Which statement indicates that client teaching regarding the administration of the
chemotherapeutic agent daunorubicin HCl has been effective?
A. "I should use an astringent mouthwash after every meal."
B. "I will eat high-fiber foods and drink lots of water."
C. "I expect my urine to be red for the next few days."
D. "I should use sunscreen when I spend time outdoors." C. "I expect my urine to be red for
the next few days."
Daunorubicin HCl causes the urine to turn red in color. Option A is not recommended. Options B
and D are interventions that promote general good health but are not specific to treatment with
daunorubicin HCl.
When providing client teaching about the administration of methylphenidate (Ritalin) to a parent
of a child diagnosed with ADHD, which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching
plan?
A. The doses should be given exactly 12 hours apart to sustain a therapeutic serum level.
B. Doses should be scheduled at midmorning and midafternoon to achieve optimal benefit.
C. Give the medication only on school days and when the child appears to be anxious.
D. Offer the child the medication with breakfast and after the child eats lunch. D. Offer the
child the medication with breakfast and after the child eats lunch.
Administering the medication at breakfast and after lunch provides the correct spacing of the
doses to maximize the child's attention span and helps prevent the appetite suppression
associated with the drug. Doses should be spaced at 6-hour intervals, not option A. Option B is
likely to increase insomnia. Option C disrupts the normal dosing schedule, resulting in
ineffective treatment. Doses should be discontinued only for brief intervals (with the health care
provider's approval) when the client's condition is being evaluated or if the client is being
weaned from the medication entirely.
A client who is HIV-positive is receiving combination therapy with the antiviral medication
zidovudine. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?
A. Take the drug as prescribed to cure HIV infections.
B. Use the drug to reduce the risk of transmitting HIV to sexual contacts.
C. Return to the clinic every 2 weeks for blood counts.
D. Report to the health care provider immediately if dizziness is experienced. C. Return to
the clinic every 2 weeks for blood counts.
3
, Bone marrow depression with granulocytopenia is a severe but common adverse effect of
zidovudine. Careful monitoring of CBCs is indicated. Options A and B are not correct
instructions related to use of this medication. Option D is an expected side effect. The client
should be instructed to avoid driving until this reaction improves.
A client with chronic gouty arthritis is talking allopurinol, 100 mg PO daily. Which laboratory
serum level should the nurse report to the health care provider to determine the therapeutic
outcome?
A. Prothrombin time
B. Uric acid level
C. White blood cell count
D. Creatinine level B. Uric acid level
The primary therapeutic outcome associated with allopurinol therapy is reduced serum uric acid
levels with a lower frequency of acute gouty attacks, so option B should be reported to the health
care provider. Options A, C, and D are not related to the effectiveness of allopurinol.
A client who is receiving chlorpromazine HCl to control his psychotic behavior also has a
prescription for benztropine. When teaching the client and/or significant others about these
medications, what should the nurse explain about the use of benztropine in the treatment plan for
this client?
A. This medication will reduce the side effect of urinary retention.
B. This drug potentiates the effect of chlorpromazine HCl.
C. The benztropine is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms.
D. The combined effect of these drugs will modify psychotic behavior. C. The benztropine is
used to control extrapyramidal symptoms.
Benztropine, an anticholinergic drug, is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms associated
with chlorpromazine HCl (Thorazine) use. Options A, B, and D are not accurate statements
regarding the use of benztropine for clients who are treated with chlorpromazine HCl for the
control of psychosis.
A client being treated for an acute myocardial infarction is to receive the tissue plasminogen
activator alteplase. The nurse would be correct in providing which explanation to the client
regarding the purpose of this drug?
A. This drug is a nitrate that promotes vasodilation of the coronary arteries.
B. This drug is a clot buster that dissolves clots within a coronary artery.
C. This drug is a blood thinner that will help prevent the formation of a new clot.
D. This drug is a volume expander that improves myocardial perfusion by increasing output.
B. This drug is a clot buster that dissolves clots within a coronary artery.
t-PA, or tissue plasminogen activator, is a coronary-specific fibrinolytic agent that dissolves clots
within the coronary arteries. This drug is not a calcium channel blocker or nitrate, which would
promote vasodilation of the coronary arteries. This medication is not an anticoagulant, such as
warfarin or heparin, which would prevent new clot formation. Volume expansion is not provided
4
Newest With Complete All Questions And Correct
Detailed Answers| Brand New Version!
A client who is hypertensive receives a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide. When teaching
about the side effects of this drug, which symptoms are most important for the nurse to instruct
the client to report?
A. Fatigue and muscle weakness
B. Anxiety and heart palpitations
C. Abdominal cramping and diarrhea
D. Confusion and personality changes A. Fatigue and muscle weakness
Thiazide diuretics, such as HCTZ, cause potassium wasting in the urine, so the client should be
instructed to report fatigue and muscle weakness, which are characteristic of hypokalemia.
Although options B, C, and D should be reported, they are not indicative of hypokalemia, which
is a side effect of hiazides that can cause cardiac dysrhythmias.
A 55-year-old client was diagnosed with schizophrenia 5 years earlier. Numerous
hospitalizations have occurred since the diagnosis because of noncompliance with the prescribed
medication regimen. Which drug might work best for this particular client?
A. Chlorpromazine HCl
B. Lithium carbonate
C. Fluphenazine decanoate
D. Diazepam C. Fluphenazine decanoate
Fluphenazine, an antipsychotic drug that can be given IM, has a rapid onset (1 to 2 hours) and a
long duration of action (up to 3 or 4 weeks), so it would be the drug of choice for a noncompliant
psychotic client. Option A is an antipsychotic drug used to treat schizophrenia and is usually
administered PO (IM doses are short-acting). The client must be compliant in taking this drug for
it to be effective. Option B is most effective with manic and depressive bipolar affective
disorders. Option D is an antianxiety drug and would not be effective for a psychotic disorder.
The nurse is administering the early morning dose of insulin aspart, 5 units subcutaneously, to a
client with diabetes mellitus type 1. The client's fingerstick serum glucose level is 140 mg/dL.
Considering the onset of insulin aspart, when should the nurse ensure that the client's breakfast
be given?
A. 5 minutes after subcutaneous administration
B. 30 minutes after subcutaneous administration
C. 1 to 2 hours after administration
D. At any time because of a flat peak of action A. 5 minutes after subcutaneous
administration
Insulin aspart is a very rapidly acting insulin, with an onset of 5 to 15 minutes. Insulin aspart
should be administered when the client's tray is available. Insulin aspart peaks in 45 minutes to
1
,1½ hours and has a duration of 3 to 4 hours. The client should have eaten to ensure absorption of
the meal so that serum glucose levels will coincide with the peak. Insulin glargine has a flat peak
of action and is usually given at bedtime.
A mother brings her 18-month-old child to the community health center because the child has
had "bad diarrhea" for the last 3 days. She states, "I bought some of this liquid at the pharmacy
and gave my daughter a half-ounce." The nurse sees that the bottle contains loperamide. Which
intervention is most important for the nurse to implement initially?
A. Tell the mother never to give this drug to her toddler.
B. Ask if any other siblings have experienced diarrhea.
C. Take the child's oral and tympanic temperatures.
D. Ask the mother when the child last voided. D. Ask the mother when the child last
voided.
Determining when the child last voided is most important because urine output is decreased with
dehydration and an 18-month-old with a 3-day history of diarrhea could be severely dehydrated.
Although the manufacturer states that loperamide should not be given to a child younger than 2
years except under the direction of a health care provider, option A is not the best answer for this
question. In addition, loperamide causes an anticholinergic effect of urinary retention. Data
obtained in options B and C are not as high a priority as option D in this situation.
In administering the antiinfective agent chloramphenicol IV to a client with bacterial meningitis,
the nurse observes the client closely for signs of bone marrow depression. Which laboratory data
would be most important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Platelet count
B. Blood urea nitrogen level
C. Culture and sensitivity
D. Serum calcium level A. Platelet count
Chloramphenicol can cause irreversible, fatal bone marrow depression, so the nurse should
monitor the client's platelet count. Options B, C, and D do not provide data related to bone
marrow depression when monitoring a client who has been prescribed this medication.
Which assessment datum indicates to the nurse that a dose of granisetron administered IV prior
to chemotherapy has had the desired effect?
A. Oral mucosa pink and intact
B. Scalp intact without alopecia
C. Client denies nausea
D. Client denies pain C. Client denies nausea
Granisetron is an antiemetic administered before chemotherapy to prevent chemotherapy-
induced nausea and vomiting. Chemotherapy can cause oral sores, but granisetron does not
prevent this problem. Granisetron does not affect option B or D.
During administration of theophylline, the nurse should monitor for signs of toxicity. Which
symptom would cause the nurse to suspect theophylline toxicity?
2
,A. Dry mouth
B. Urinary retention
C. Restlessness
D. Sedation C. Restlessness
Restlessness is a sign of theophylline intoxication. Other signs of toxicity are anorexia, nausea,
vomiting, insomnia, tachycardia, arrhythmias, and seizures. Options A, B, and D are common
side effects of antihistamines but do not indicate theophylline intoxication.
Which statement indicates that client teaching regarding the administration of the
chemotherapeutic agent daunorubicin HCl has been effective?
A. "I should use an astringent mouthwash after every meal."
B. "I will eat high-fiber foods and drink lots of water."
C. "I expect my urine to be red for the next few days."
D. "I should use sunscreen when I spend time outdoors." C. "I expect my urine to be red for
the next few days."
Daunorubicin HCl causes the urine to turn red in color. Option A is not recommended. Options B
and D are interventions that promote general good health but are not specific to treatment with
daunorubicin HCl.
When providing client teaching about the administration of methylphenidate (Ritalin) to a parent
of a child diagnosed with ADHD, which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching
plan?
A. The doses should be given exactly 12 hours apart to sustain a therapeutic serum level.
B. Doses should be scheduled at midmorning and midafternoon to achieve optimal benefit.
C. Give the medication only on school days and when the child appears to be anxious.
D. Offer the child the medication with breakfast and after the child eats lunch. D. Offer the
child the medication with breakfast and after the child eats lunch.
Administering the medication at breakfast and after lunch provides the correct spacing of the
doses to maximize the child's attention span and helps prevent the appetite suppression
associated with the drug. Doses should be spaced at 6-hour intervals, not option A. Option B is
likely to increase insomnia. Option C disrupts the normal dosing schedule, resulting in
ineffective treatment. Doses should be discontinued only for brief intervals (with the health care
provider's approval) when the client's condition is being evaluated or if the client is being
weaned from the medication entirely.
A client who is HIV-positive is receiving combination therapy with the antiviral medication
zidovudine. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan?
A. Take the drug as prescribed to cure HIV infections.
B. Use the drug to reduce the risk of transmitting HIV to sexual contacts.
C. Return to the clinic every 2 weeks for blood counts.
D. Report to the health care provider immediately if dizziness is experienced. C. Return to
the clinic every 2 weeks for blood counts.
3
, Bone marrow depression with granulocytopenia is a severe but common adverse effect of
zidovudine. Careful monitoring of CBCs is indicated. Options A and B are not correct
instructions related to use of this medication. Option D is an expected side effect. The client
should be instructed to avoid driving until this reaction improves.
A client with chronic gouty arthritis is talking allopurinol, 100 mg PO daily. Which laboratory
serum level should the nurse report to the health care provider to determine the therapeutic
outcome?
A. Prothrombin time
B. Uric acid level
C. White blood cell count
D. Creatinine level B. Uric acid level
The primary therapeutic outcome associated with allopurinol therapy is reduced serum uric acid
levels with a lower frequency of acute gouty attacks, so option B should be reported to the health
care provider. Options A, C, and D are not related to the effectiveness of allopurinol.
A client who is receiving chlorpromazine HCl to control his psychotic behavior also has a
prescription for benztropine. When teaching the client and/or significant others about these
medications, what should the nurse explain about the use of benztropine in the treatment plan for
this client?
A. This medication will reduce the side effect of urinary retention.
B. This drug potentiates the effect of chlorpromazine HCl.
C. The benztropine is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms.
D. The combined effect of these drugs will modify psychotic behavior. C. The benztropine is
used to control extrapyramidal symptoms.
Benztropine, an anticholinergic drug, is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms associated
with chlorpromazine HCl (Thorazine) use. Options A, B, and D are not accurate statements
regarding the use of benztropine for clients who are treated with chlorpromazine HCl for the
control of psychosis.
A client being treated for an acute myocardial infarction is to receive the tissue plasminogen
activator alteplase. The nurse would be correct in providing which explanation to the client
regarding the purpose of this drug?
A. This drug is a nitrate that promotes vasodilation of the coronary arteries.
B. This drug is a clot buster that dissolves clots within a coronary artery.
C. This drug is a blood thinner that will help prevent the formation of a new clot.
D. This drug is a volume expander that improves myocardial perfusion by increasing output.
B. This drug is a clot buster that dissolves clots within a coronary artery.
t-PA, or tissue plasminogen activator, is a coronary-specific fibrinolytic agent that dissolves clots
within the coronary arteries. This drug is not a calcium channel blocker or nitrate, which would
promote vasodilation of the coronary arteries. This medication is not an anticoagulant, such as
warfarin or heparin, which would prevent new clot formation. Volume expansion is not provided
4
