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Galen NUR 265 | Exam 2 Practice Test | 150 Questions & Rationales | Med-Surg 2026

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Ace the Galen NUR 265 Med-Surg Exam 2 with this comprehensive 150-question practice test for 2026. This digital download contains 150 unique questions with detailed rationales, covering the essential topics for NUR 265 Exam 2. Designed specifically for Galen College of Nursing students, this resource reinforces clinical judgment and critical thinking. What’s included in this PDF: 150 Practice Questions with correct answers and "why" rationales. Exam Blueprint Topics Covered: Preoperative Care: Antiplatelet agents (Plavix), steroid withdrawal, NPO guidelines, anesthesia awareness, herbal supplements (garlic), atropine, malignant hyperthermia precautions, latex allergy, advance directives. Postoperative Complications: Paralytic ileus, pulmonary embolism (PE), atelectasis, TURP clot retention, decreased GCS after craniotomy, CAUTI, wound infection, thyroidectomy stridor/hematoma, PCA monitoring. Fluid & Electrolytes: SIADH (small cell lung cancer), diabetes insipidus (DDAVP), hypercalcemia (IV fluids), hypomagnesemia/torsades (magnesium sulfate), Addison's crisis (IV hydrocortisone), Cushing's syndrome, hyperaldosteronism (spironolactone), pheochromocytoma (alpha-blockers first), DKA (fluids then insulin), HHS, myxedema coma, thyroid storm, post-thyroidectomy hypocalcemia (IV calcium), hyperkalemia (calcium gluconate first), severe hyponatremia (3% saline). Transfusion Reactions & Immunology: Allergic reaction (stop, antihistamines), IgA deficiency (washed RBCs), anemia in CKD (epoetin or transfusion), indirect Coombs test, hemophilia B (Factor IX), ITP with active bleeding (platelet transfusion), neutropenic precautions, HIV/ART, suspected hemolytic reaction (send blood bag to lab), TRALI, lupus (sun protection), methotrexate (folic acid), scleroderma dysphagia (sit upright), myasthenia gravis (cholinergic crisis vs. myasthenic crisis), Guillain-Barré (monitor vital capacity), CNS lupus, ankylosing spondylitis (restrictive lung disease), gout tophi, Sjögren's syndrome (dental caries), IVIG (aseptic meningitis). Sepsis & Infectious Diseases: Septic shock (vasopressors after fluids), MAP goal 65 mmHg, sepsis labs (elevated lactate, low platelets, high INR), broad-spectrum IV antibiotics within 1 hour, C. diff (oral vancomycin), MRSA (vancomycin trough), Kernig's sign (meningeal irritation), HIV with low CD4 (opportunistic infection), TB medications (hepatitis warning), disseminated shingles (airborne + contact precautions), catheter-related bloodstream infection, secondary bacterial pneumonia after influenza, endocarditis (embolic phenomena), osteomyelitis (decreasing ESR/CRP), urosepsis (IV fluids/antibiotics), wound culture technique, varicella (airborne + contact), malaria (parasite cycle), Lyme disease (doxycycline). Oncology & Palliative Care: Thrombocytopenia (avoid safety razors), febrile neutropenia (emergency), SVC syndrome, tumor lysis syndrome (rasburicase), tamoxifen (DVT risk), abnormal stoma (notify surgeon), cisplatin ototoxicity (tinnitus), CINV (aprepitant for refractory), death rattle (reposition, educate family), DNR/DNI (treat infection with antibiotics/oxygen), leukostasis (hydration/hydroxyurea), hypercalcemia of malignancy (IV fluids first), doxorubicin (cardiotoxicity), radiation burn care, multiple myeloma (lytic lesions), informed consent in clinical trials, vincristine (constipation management). Pain Management & Prioritization/Delegation: Opioid-induced respiratory depression (stimulate, hold dose), neuropathic pain (gabapentin), fentanyl patch (do not cut or apply heat), ineffective PCA (assess pump function), pre-medicate for procedural pain, terminal restlessness (lorazepam), opioid tolerance vs. addiction, liver failure (acetaminophen max 2g/day), epidural analgesia (assess motor block), dyspnea at EOL (fan, open window), MAID (nurse's role), DNI (non-invasive ventilation allowed), opioid myoclonus (neurotoxicity), febrile neutropenia prioritization, UAP delegation (empty Foley catheter), LPN assignment (stable pneumonia), new graduate assignment (stable post-op), sepsis vital signs delegation (report low BP), DNR (oxygen/comfort care), confused + fever (assess first), potassium IV push (never), wet central line dressing (sterile change by RN), post-op hemorrhage (100 mL/hr bright red blood), opioid use disorder (multimodal pain management). Perfect for: Exam 2 preparation for NUR 265. Remediation and content review. Practicing clinical judgment (NGN-style scenarios). This is an original educational practice exam created to supplement course materials.

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Galen NUR 265
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Galen NUR 265

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

Galen NUR 265 – Med-Surg Exam 2, Set 1
(2026 Edition) 150 Original Questions with
Answers & Rationales

Section 1: Preoperative & Intraoperative Care (Q1–15)
1. A patient scheduled for surgery reports taking clopidogrel
(Plavix) daily. The nurse should:
A. Administer the medication as scheduled
B. Notify the surgeon and anesthesiologist
C. Hold the medication for 24 hours pre-op
D. Give vitamin K to reverse effects
Answer: B – Notify the surgeon and anesthesiologist
Rationale: Antiplatelet agents increase bleeding risk; decision to
hold or continue must be made by provider.
2. Which medication should be withheld before surgery due to risk
of adrenal insufficiency?
A. Metoprolol
B. Prednisone
C. Lisinopril
D. Metformin
Answer: B – Prednisone
Rationale: Chronic steroids can cause adrenal suppression; stress
dose steroids may be needed perioperatively.
3. A patient with diabetes is NPO before surgery. The nurse should:
A. Hold all diabetes medications
B. Give half the usual insulin dose

,C. Notify provider for insulin adjustment and monitor glucose
D. Give oral hypoglycemics with a sip of water
Answer: C – Notify provider for insulin adjustment and monitor
glucose
Rationale: NPO patients require insulin adjustments to prevent
hypo/hyperglycemia.
4. A patient is concerned about waking up during surgery. The
nurse explains:
A. “That never happens with modern anesthesia.”
B. “Anesthesia awareness is rare, and monitors help prevent it.”
C. “You will be paralyzed so you can’t move even if awake.”
D. “It happens in 50% of surgeries.”
Answer: B – “Anesthesia awareness is rare, and monitors help
prevent it.”
*Rationale: Anesthesia awareness is rare (0.1-0.2%); BIS monitors
reduce risk.*
5. Which herbal supplement increases bleeding risk and should be
stopped before surgery?
A. Echinacea
B. St. John’s wort
C. Garlic
D. Valerian root
Answer: C – Garlic
Rationale: Garlic, ginkgo, ginseng, and fish oil increase bleeding
risk.
6. A patient receives atropine as a preoperative medication. The
nurse knows this is given to:

,A. Decrease anxiety
B. Dry respiratory secretions
C. Induce amnesia
D. Reverse neuromuscular blockade
Answer: B – Dry respiratory secretions
Rationale: Atropine is an anticholinergic that reduces secretions
during intubation.
7. Which laboratory finding would most likely cause postponement
of elective surgery?
A. Hemoglobin 11 g/dL
B. Potassium 3.5 mEq/L
C. Platelets 50,000/µL
D. INR 1.2
Answer: C – Platelets 50,000/µL
Rationale: Severe thrombocytopenia increases bleeding risk;
elective surgery may be delayed.
8. A patient with a history of malignant hyperthermia is scheduled
for surgery. Which anesthetic agent should be avoided?
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Succinylcholine
D. Etomidate
Answer: C – Succinylcholine
Rationale: Succinylcholine and volatile anesthetics (sevoflurane,
desflurane) trigger MH.
9. The nurse is preparing a patient for surgery. Which statement
requires immediate intervention?

, A. “I had a glass of water 2 hours ago.”
B. “I took my blood pressure pill this morning.”
C. “I am allergic to penicillin.”
D. “My wedding ring won’t come off.”
Answer: A – “I had a glass of water 2 hours ago.”
*Rationale: NPO guidelines typically require no fluids 2-6 hours
before surgery depending on procedure.*
10. A patient asks why they need to wear sequential compression
devices (SCDs) during surgery. The nurse explains:
A. “They keep your legs warm.”
B. “They prevent blood clots by improving circulation.”
C. “They monitor your blood pressure.”
D. “They help you wake up faster.”
Answer: B – “They prevent blood clots by improving circulation.”
Rationale: SCDs provide mechanical prophylaxis against DVT.
11. A patient receives midazolam (Versed) preoperatively. The nurse
should monitor for:
A. Hypertension
B. Respiratory depression
C. Hyperthermia
D. Seizures
Answer: B – Respiratory depression
Rationale: Benzodiazepines cause sedation and respiratory
depression, especially with opioids.
12. Which patient is at highest risk for postoperative nausea and
vomiting (PONV)?
A. 25-year-old female nonsmoker with history of motion sickness

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