WGU D116 PHARMACOLOGY ||2026 MOST RECENT
VERSION|COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
ANSWERS/ACCURATE SOLUTIONS|ALREADY GRADED
A+|GET IT 100% CORRECT.
A patient presents to an emergency room complaining of
palpitations and irregular heartbeat. The advanced practice
registered nurse (APRN) places the patient on a cardiac monitor
and observes atrial fibrillation. The APRN orders dofetilide.
How should the APRN recommend this medication be taken? -
Answer✅️☑️YES With food or an empty stomach
A 70-year-old male calls a clinic complaining of chest pain that
started after having sexual activity. He took sildenafil 50 mg
about eight hours ago. He has nitroglycerin 0.3 mg on hand.
How should the advanced practice registered nurse respond? -
Answer✅️☑️Do not take the nitroglycerin and call 911
Taking the medications together can cause a serious drop in
blood pressure leading to cardiovascular collapse.
,A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder who is in a mental
health clinic is discussing the possibility of beginning lithium
with an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN). The patient
expresses understanding and wishes to proceed with
treatment. The APRN explains to the patient that this
medication requires specific lab monitoring and wants to draw
baseline labs. The patient asks why the test is needed.
Which explanation should the APRN provide to this patient? -
Answer✅️☑️A baseline blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and
creatinine (CREA) level needs to be drawn to assess kidney
function prior to treatment.
This drug can cause decreased renal function, and a baseline
should be drawn for future comparison.
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is reviewing the
medications that will be commonly experienced with a new
nurse to determine whether the drugs are safe for the patients.
The new nurse is given a scenario where a patient is being
prescribed sildenafil 25 mg po prn, a prototype drug for erectile
dysfunction.
,Which patient may take this drug safely? - Answer✅️☑️YES A
54-year-male with a medical history of hypertension, mild
eczema, and previous history of a urolithiasis where all is well
controlled and there are no current complications
A 30-year-old patient presents to a primary care clinic with a
history of anxiety. The advanced practice registered nurse
reviews the mechanism of action by which many
neuropharmacological agents act and decides to prescribe
citalopram.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication? -
Answer✅️☑️YES Influences receptor activity on target cells
Correct! This medication influences the activity in the receptors,
and it targets cells.
A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Huntington disease. On
admission, the patient exhibits uncontrolled twitching, difficulty
walking, trouble swallowing, confusion, and memory loss. The
advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) prescribes baclofen.
, What is the mechanism of action of this medication? -
Answer✅️☑️NO Modulates the effects of glutamate at NMDA
receptors
YES Inhibits neurotransmitter GABA
NO Halts the breakdown of acetylcholine by
acetylcholinesterase
Alters the synthesis and release of norepinephrine, serotonin,
and dopamine
Incorrect. Cholinesterase inhibitors prevent the breakdown of
acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase. They are used in patients
with Alzheimer's.
Correct! Huntington's disease involves a deficiency of the
neurotransmitters acetylcholine and y-aminobutyric acid in the
basal ganglia and extrapyramidal system.
A 21-year-old patient accompanied by a parent comes to a clinic
for an emergency visit with an advanced practice registered
nurse (APRN) following a seizure. Upon interviewing the patient
and the parent, the APRN determines that the seizure is
classified by marked impairment of consciousness and is
followed by a period of central nervous system (CNS)
depression.
VERSION|COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
ANSWERS/ACCURATE SOLUTIONS|ALREADY GRADED
A+|GET IT 100% CORRECT.
A patient presents to an emergency room complaining of
palpitations and irregular heartbeat. The advanced practice
registered nurse (APRN) places the patient on a cardiac monitor
and observes atrial fibrillation. The APRN orders dofetilide.
How should the APRN recommend this medication be taken? -
Answer✅️☑️YES With food or an empty stomach
A 70-year-old male calls a clinic complaining of chest pain that
started after having sexual activity. He took sildenafil 50 mg
about eight hours ago. He has nitroglycerin 0.3 mg on hand.
How should the advanced practice registered nurse respond? -
Answer✅️☑️Do not take the nitroglycerin and call 911
Taking the medications together can cause a serious drop in
blood pressure leading to cardiovascular collapse.
,A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder who is in a mental
health clinic is discussing the possibility of beginning lithium
with an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN). The patient
expresses understanding and wishes to proceed with
treatment. The APRN explains to the patient that this
medication requires specific lab monitoring and wants to draw
baseline labs. The patient asks why the test is needed.
Which explanation should the APRN provide to this patient? -
Answer✅️☑️A baseline blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and
creatinine (CREA) level needs to be drawn to assess kidney
function prior to treatment.
This drug can cause decreased renal function, and a baseline
should be drawn for future comparison.
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is reviewing the
medications that will be commonly experienced with a new
nurse to determine whether the drugs are safe for the patients.
The new nurse is given a scenario where a patient is being
prescribed sildenafil 25 mg po prn, a prototype drug for erectile
dysfunction.
,Which patient may take this drug safely? - Answer✅️☑️YES A
54-year-male with a medical history of hypertension, mild
eczema, and previous history of a urolithiasis where all is well
controlled and there are no current complications
A 30-year-old patient presents to a primary care clinic with a
history of anxiety. The advanced practice registered nurse
reviews the mechanism of action by which many
neuropharmacological agents act and decides to prescribe
citalopram.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication? -
Answer✅️☑️YES Influences receptor activity on target cells
Correct! This medication influences the activity in the receptors,
and it targets cells.
A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Huntington disease. On
admission, the patient exhibits uncontrolled twitching, difficulty
walking, trouble swallowing, confusion, and memory loss. The
advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) prescribes baclofen.
, What is the mechanism of action of this medication? -
Answer✅️☑️NO Modulates the effects of glutamate at NMDA
receptors
YES Inhibits neurotransmitter GABA
NO Halts the breakdown of acetylcholine by
acetylcholinesterase
Alters the synthesis and release of norepinephrine, serotonin,
and dopamine
Incorrect. Cholinesterase inhibitors prevent the breakdown of
acetylcholine by acetylcholinesterase. They are used in patients
with Alzheimer's.
Correct! Huntington's disease involves a deficiency of the
neurotransmitters acetylcholine and y-aminobutyric acid in the
basal ganglia and extrapyramidal system.
A 21-year-old patient accompanied by a parent comes to a clinic
for an emergency visit with an advanced practice registered
nurse (APRN) following a seizure. Upon interviewing the patient
and the parent, the APRN determines that the seizure is
classified by marked impairment of consciousness and is
followed by a period of central nervous system (CNS)
depression.
