CEA EXAM 2025/2026 TEST BANK
WITH 500 EXAM PREP QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS/ CEA FNP
TEST 2025 TEST BANK (100%
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS)
adult female Pap smear results reveals high-grade squamous intraepithelial
lesion. What should the nurse practitioner do next? *Perform human
papillomavirus testing *Repeat the Pap smear in 1 month *Repeat the Pap
smear in 4 to 6 months *Refer for colposcopy - ANSWER//Refer for
colposcopy Rationale: When a Pap smear reveals a high-grade squamous
intraepithelial lesion (HSIL), it indicates a significant abnormality that has a
higher potential to progress to cervical cancer if left untreated. The
recommended next step is further evaluation through colposcopy and possibly
biopsy. A 16-year-old female in the first month of taking Ortho-Novum 7/7/7
complains of midcycle spotting. She has not missed any doses and uses no
other medication. Which of the following is appropriate? *Double dosing for 2
days *Modifying use *Changing to Ortho-Novum 1/35 *Providing reassurance
- ANSWER//Providing reassurance Rationale: Ortho-Novum 7/7/7 is a
combination oral contraceptive pill that contains varying doses of estrogen
and progestin (norethindrone) throughout the cycle. It is a triphasic pill,
meaning that the hormone levels change every seven days to mimic the
natural menstrual cycle more closely. Mid-cycle spotting can occur for several
reasons while using this contraceptive. Your patient has recently traveled to
the developing world for a medical service trip and has returned with
symptoms of night sweats, weight loss, and hemoptysis. Which of the
following interventions represent your priority in their care? *Asking a
thorough history of the events of the last week *Listening to the lungs and
collecting a sputum sample *Discussing the patient's immunization history and
health prior to the trip *Isolating from others and initiating negative pressure
isolation - ANSWER//Isolating from others and initiating negative pressure
isolation Rationale: Suggested tuberculosis exposure requires immediate
isolation. All the rest are not interventions, rather evaluations. Which
treatment of the following is commonly associated with tuberculosis?
*Amoxicillin and amphotericin B *Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and
ethambutol *Gentamycin plus sulfamethoxazole *Amphotericin B and
rifampicin - ANSWER//Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
Rationale: The classic 4 drug combo of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide,
and ethambutol are used for TB treatment. The rest are not viable options for
this treatment. Amphotericin B is used for fungal infections. Which of the
following scenarios suggest a high risk of metabolic acidosis? *Overdose of
oxycontin *New onset of type I diabetes mellitus with blood sugar of 800
*Small bowel obstruction with continuous NG suction *Acute panic attack with
carpopedal spasms - ANSWER//New onset of type I diabetes mellitus with
,blood sugar of 800 Rationale: DKA is a very common metabolic acidosis
marked by inability for the cell to receive glucose from a lack of insulin
produced by the pancreas. SBO with NG suction suggests metabolic alkalosis
from suction of stomach acid. Overdose of opioids would suggest respiratory
acidosis and acute panic would likely reflect respiratory acidosis. Pleural
effusion is NOT associated with which of the following conditions? *Pulmonary
edema *Bowel cancer *Borhaave's syndrome *Congestive heart failure -
ANSWER//Bowel cancer Rationale: Pleural effusion is associated with
pulmonary edema, congestive heart failure, and Borhaave syndrome. Bowel
cancer is not associated with pleural effusion. A 57-year-old man presents
with a persistent, non-productive cough and weight loss. Chest X-ray reveals
a mass in the lung apex. What is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
*Chest CT scan *PET scan *Bronchoscopy *Sputum culture -
ANSWER//Bronchoscopy Rationale: Bronchoscopy is a diagnostic and
sometimes therapeutic procedure that allows direct visualization of the
airways using a flexible or rigid bronchoscope. A 65-year-old man with a
history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with
increased shortness of breath, wheezing, and a productive cough. On
auscultation, you hear decreased breath sounds and wheezes. What is the
most appropriate initial management? *Oral corticosteroids *Short-acting
beta-agonists *Antibiotics *Inhaled corticosteroids - ANSWER//Short-acting
beta-agonists Rationale: Short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) are a crucial
component in the management of COPD due to their rapid onset of action,
effectiveness in relieving acute symptoms, and ability to improve exercise
tolerance and overall quality of life. They serve as rescue medications to
manage acute exacerbations and are used in conjunction with long-acting
therapies to provide comprehensive symptom control. Their ease of use,
availability, and flexibility in dosing make SABAs an essential tool in the
treatment of COPD. An adult presents for a 3-month follow-up visit for
intermittent asthma. The patient's current treatment plant is albuterol (Ventolin
HFA) as needed. The patient reports coughing, wheezing, and chest tightness
that require inhaler use 3 days a week. The patient also reports nighttime
coughing about once per week in the last month. What is the nurse
practitioners BEST plan of care? *Add fluticasone propionate/salmeterol
(Advair) *Add salmeterol (Serevent) *Add fluticasone propionate (Flovent HFA)
*Maintain the current treatment plan - ANSWER//Add fluticasone propionate
(Flovent HFA) Rationale: Fluticasone propionate (Flovent HFA) is added to
asthma management for its potent anti-inflammatory effects, which help to
control and prevent chronic symptoms, improve lung function, reduce the
frequency and severity of exacerbations, and minimize the need for systemic
corticosteroids. It is a cornerstone of maintenance therapy for asthma,
particularly in patients with persistent symptoms or those who have frequent
exacerbations. A 3-year-old child presents with a swollen, red, and tender
knee. The child has a fever and refuses to bear weight on the leg. What is the
most likely diagnosis? *Juvenile idiopathic arthritis *Reactive arthritis
*Osteomyelitis *Septic arthritis - ANSWER//Septic arthritis Rationale: Septic
arthritis in toddlers is a serious condition where a joint becomes infected,
usually by bacteria or less commonly by fungi or viruses. Symptoms: Joint
Pain: Often severe and localized to the affected joint. Swelling: The joint may
appear swollen, warm to the touch, and red. Limited Movement: They may
,refuse to use the affected limb or avoid bearing weight on it. Fever: Often high,
accompanying the infection. Irritability: Due to pain and discomfort. A 2-day
old newborn has purulent discharge of the eyes and erythema. History
includes a vaginal birth at term delivered at home. What is the most likely
culprit? *Chlamydia trachomatis infection *E-coli infection *Staph infection
*Viral infection - ANSWER//Chlamydia trachomatis infection Rationale:
Chlamydia conjunctivitis is usually spread through direct contact with
discharge from the eyes or genital secretions of someone infected with
Chlamydia trachomatis. It can occur in newborns during childbirth (neonatal
conjunctivitis) or in adults through sexual contact (adult inclusion
conjunctivitis). Symptoms: The symptoms can include: Redness in the eye(s).
Watery or mucopurulent discharge (yellow or green discharge from the eyes).
Swelling of the eyelids. Sensitivity to light (photophobia). Itching or burning
sensation in the eyes. A 5-year-old child presents with frequent episodes of
otitis media. His parents are concerned about his hearing and speech
development. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
*Referral to an audiologist for a hearing evaluation *Monitoring and
reassessing in 3 months *Prescribing long-term antibiotics *Immediate referral
for tympanostomy tube placement - ANSWER//Referral to an audiologist for a
hearing evaluation Rationale: Otitis media can cause temporary conductive
hearing loss due to fluid buildup in the middle ear, which can affect sound
transmission to the inner ear. Chronic or recurrent infections may lead to more
persistent hearing issues. An audiologist can assess the child's hearing
sensitivity and determine if there is any hearing loss present. The 16-year-old
mother presents 1-month-old reporting that the child is very irritable and does
not feed well. Physical examination demonstrates the child's head drops back
and the child exhibits sudden flexing of the extremities. As the flexing stops,
the child cries uncontrollably. Funduscopic examination reveals retinal
hemorrhages. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered?
*Skull X-rays *MRI *PET scan *CT scan - ANSWER//CT scan Rationale: An
urgent CT scan should be done to evaluate for intracranial hemorrhage or
hydrocephalus. During a well-child examination of a 24 month old, premature
tooth decay and inflamed gums, particularly of the maxillary incisors, are
noted. The approach to this problem includes: *referring the child to a dentist,
assessing for bottle feeding and fluoride in local water. *recommending
fluoride mouthwash and toothpaste, suggesting celery sticks for snacks.
*providing fluoride treatment, teaching dental hygiene, and eating foods high
in calcium. *teaching the mother to brush the child's teeth, encouraging
vitamin supplements. - ANSWER//referring the child to a dentist, assessing for
bottle feeding and fluoride in local water. Rationale: Refer to a periodontist if
the child has moderate to severe gum disease this ensures comprehensive
care, including orthodontic evaluation if misaligned teeth are contributing to
gum disease. A mother brings her 8-week-old to the clinic who has been
inconsolably crying for the last 4 days. The physical exam shows normal
findings. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse practitioner
order next? *CMP *MRI *Urinalysis *Blood cultures - ANSWER//Urinalysis
Rationale: Newborn irritability can be a sign of various underlying conditions,
including infections, metabolic disturbances, and other medical issues. A
urinalysis is a valuable diagnostic tool that can help identify or rule out urinary
tract infections (UTIs) and other metabolic disorders that might be contributing
, to the infant's symptoms. A 5-year-old girl presents with fever, rash, hacking
cough, and swollen, tender lymph nodes. The rash started on her face and
has spread to the rest of her body. What is the most likely diagnosis?
*Chickenpox *Measles *Fifth disease *Scarlet fever - ANSWER//Measles
Rationale: Measles, also known as rubeola, is a highly contagious viral
infection caused by the measles virus. The symptoms of measles typically
appear in stages over a period of about 10-14 days after exposure to the virus.
Here are the common symptoms associated with measles: Initial Symptoms
(Prodromal Stage): Fever: Often high, typically begins about 10-12 days after
exposure to the virus. Malaise: General feeling of discomfort, tiredness, and
lack of well-being. Runny Nose: Nasal congestion and discharge. Cough: Dry,
persistent cough. Koplik Spots: These are small, white spots that may appear
inside the mouth, usually on the inner lining of the cheek. They are
characteristic of measles and may precede the rash by 1-2 days. Rash
(Exanthematous Stage): A characteristic red or reddish-brown rash typically
begins on the face and hairline, spreading downward to the rest of the body.
The rash consists of flat, red spots that may blend together as they spread. It
usually lasts for about 5-7 days and fades in the order it appeared, often
accompanied by fever. A healthy unvaccinated child is exposed to Hepatitis A.
The best option for therapy is: *zidovudine *inactive hepatitis A vaccine
*hepatitis B vaccine *immune globulin - ANSWER//immune globulin Rationale:
IG is effective when given within 2 weeks (preferably within 2 weeks) of
exposure to HAV. It provides temporary protection, typically lasting about 3 to
6 months.
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-
ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the
left border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic
angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window posterior
to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal
consolidation? *Left upper lobe apex *Right middle lobe *Left upper lobe
lingula *Left lower lobe - ANSWER//Left upper lobe lingula Ratonale: Lingular
consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac
margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle
lobe or left upper lobe lingula. The inability to fully relax the myocardium
during relaxation is a trademark of which of the following diagnoses? -
ANSWER//Diastolic dysfunction Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax
is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in
patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium. An otherwise healthy
African American adult male has been diagnosed with hypertension. He has
been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop
Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood pressure is still
elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe him? -
ANSWER//Calcium channel blocker Rationale: African American patients per
JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a dihydropyridine
calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line
management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle
modifications. Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic
aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered standard of care for serial
surveillance? - ANSWER//CT angiography of the chest Rationale: CT
WITH 500 EXAM PREP QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS/ CEA FNP
TEST 2025 TEST BANK (100%
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS)
adult female Pap smear results reveals high-grade squamous intraepithelial
lesion. What should the nurse practitioner do next? *Perform human
papillomavirus testing *Repeat the Pap smear in 1 month *Repeat the Pap
smear in 4 to 6 months *Refer for colposcopy - ANSWER//Refer for
colposcopy Rationale: When a Pap smear reveals a high-grade squamous
intraepithelial lesion (HSIL), it indicates a significant abnormality that has a
higher potential to progress to cervical cancer if left untreated. The
recommended next step is further evaluation through colposcopy and possibly
biopsy. A 16-year-old female in the first month of taking Ortho-Novum 7/7/7
complains of midcycle spotting. She has not missed any doses and uses no
other medication. Which of the following is appropriate? *Double dosing for 2
days *Modifying use *Changing to Ortho-Novum 1/35 *Providing reassurance
- ANSWER//Providing reassurance Rationale: Ortho-Novum 7/7/7 is a
combination oral contraceptive pill that contains varying doses of estrogen
and progestin (norethindrone) throughout the cycle. It is a triphasic pill,
meaning that the hormone levels change every seven days to mimic the
natural menstrual cycle more closely. Mid-cycle spotting can occur for several
reasons while using this contraceptive. Your patient has recently traveled to
the developing world for a medical service trip and has returned with
symptoms of night sweats, weight loss, and hemoptysis. Which of the
following interventions represent your priority in their care? *Asking a
thorough history of the events of the last week *Listening to the lungs and
collecting a sputum sample *Discussing the patient's immunization history and
health prior to the trip *Isolating from others and initiating negative pressure
isolation - ANSWER//Isolating from others and initiating negative pressure
isolation Rationale: Suggested tuberculosis exposure requires immediate
isolation. All the rest are not interventions, rather evaluations. Which
treatment of the following is commonly associated with tuberculosis?
*Amoxicillin and amphotericin B *Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and
ethambutol *Gentamycin plus sulfamethoxazole *Amphotericin B and
rifampicin - ANSWER//Isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol
Rationale: The classic 4 drug combo of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide,
and ethambutol are used for TB treatment. The rest are not viable options for
this treatment. Amphotericin B is used for fungal infections. Which of the
following scenarios suggest a high risk of metabolic acidosis? *Overdose of
oxycontin *New onset of type I diabetes mellitus with blood sugar of 800
*Small bowel obstruction with continuous NG suction *Acute panic attack with
carpopedal spasms - ANSWER//New onset of type I diabetes mellitus with
,blood sugar of 800 Rationale: DKA is a very common metabolic acidosis
marked by inability for the cell to receive glucose from a lack of insulin
produced by the pancreas. SBO with NG suction suggests metabolic alkalosis
from suction of stomach acid. Overdose of opioids would suggest respiratory
acidosis and acute panic would likely reflect respiratory acidosis. Pleural
effusion is NOT associated with which of the following conditions? *Pulmonary
edema *Bowel cancer *Borhaave's syndrome *Congestive heart failure -
ANSWER//Bowel cancer Rationale: Pleural effusion is associated with
pulmonary edema, congestive heart failure, and Borhaave syndrome. Bowel
cancer is not associated with pleural effusion. A 57-year-old man presents
with a persistent, non-productive cough and weight loss. Chest X-ray reveals
a mass in the lung apex. What is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
*Chest CT scan *PET scan *Bronchoscopy *Sputum culture -
ANSWER//Bronchoscopy Rationale: Bronchoscopy is a diagnostic and
sometimes therapeutic procedure that allows direct visualization of the
airways using a flexible or rigid bronchoscope. A 65-year-old man with a
history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with
increased shortness of breath, wheezing, and a productive cough. On
auscultation, you hear decreased breath sounds and wheezes. What is the
most appropriate initial management? *Oral corticosteroids *Short-acting
beta-agonists *Antibiotics *Inhaled corticosteroids - ANSWER//Short-acting
beta-agonists Rationale: Short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) are a crucial
component in the management of COPD due to their rapid onset of action,
effectiveness in relieving acute symptoms, and ability to improve exercise
tolerance and overall quality of life. They serve as rescue medications to
manage acute exacerbations and are used in conjunction with long-acting
therapies to provide comprehensive symptom control. Their ease of use,
availability, and flexibility in dosing make SABAs an essential tool in the
treatment of COPD. An adult presents for a 3-month follow-up visit for
intermittent asthma. The patient's current treatment plant is albuterol (Ventolin
HFA) as needed. The patient reports coughing, wheezing, and chest tightness
that require inhaler use 3 days a week. The patient also reports nighttime
coughing about once per week in the last month. What is the nurse
practitioners BEST plan of care? *Add fluticasone propionate/salmeterol
(Advair) *Add salmeterol (Serevent) *Add fluticasone propionate (Flovent HFA)
*Maintain the current treatment plan - ANSWER//Add fluticasone propionate
(Flovent HFA) Rationale: Fluticasone propionate (Flovent HFA) is added to
asthma management for its potent anti-inflammatory effects, which help to
control and prevent chronic symptoms, improve lung function, reduce the
frequency and severity of exacerbations, and minimize the need for systemic
corticosteroids. It is a cornerstone of maintenance therapy for asthma,
particularly in patients with persistent symptoms or those who have frequent
exacerbations. A 3-year-old child presents with a swollen, red, and tender
knee. The child has a fever and refuses to bear weight on the leg. What is the
most likely diagnosis? *Juvenile idiopathic arthritis *Reactive arthritis
*Osteomyelitis *Septic arthritis - ANSWER//Septic arthritis Rationale: Septic
arthritis in toddlers is a serious condition where a joint becomes infected,
usually by bacteria or less commonly by fungi or viruses. Symptoms: Joint
Pain: Often severe and localized to the affected joint. Swelling: The joint may
appear swollen, warm to the touch, and red. Limited Movement: They may
,refuse to use the affected limb or avoid bearing weight on it. Fever: Often high,
accompanying the infection. Irritability: Due to pain and discomfort. A 2-day
old newborn has purulent discharge of the eyes and erythema. History
includes a vaginal birth at term delivered at home. What is the most likely
culprit? *Chlamydia trachomatis infection *E-coli infection *Staph infection
*Viral infection - ANSWER//Chlamydia trachomatis infection Rationale:
Chlamydia conjunctivitis is usually spread through direct contact with
discharge from the eyes or genital secretions of someone infected with
Chlamydia trachomatis. It can occur in newborns during childbirth (neonatal
conjunctivitis) or in adults through sexual contact (adult inclusion
conjunctivitis). Symptoms: The symptoms can include: Redness in the eye(s).
Watery or mucopurulent discharge (yellow or green discharge from the eyes).
Swelling of the eyelids. Sensitivity to light (photophobia). Itching or burning
sensation in the eyes. A 5-year-old child presents with frequent episodes of
otitis media. His parents are concerned about his hearing and speech
development. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
*Referral to an audiologist for a hearing evaluation *Monitoring and
reassessing in 3 months *Prescribing long-term antibiotics *Immediate referral
for tympanostomy tube placement - ANSWER//Referral to an audiologist for a
hearing evaluation Rationale: Otitis media can cause temporary conductive
hearing loss due to fluid buildup in the middle ear, which can affect sound
transmission to the inner ear. Chronic or recurrent infections may lead to more
persistent hearing issues. An audiologist can assess the child's hearing
sensitivity and determine if there is any hearing loss present. The 16-year-old
mother presents 1-month-old reporting that the child is very irritable and does
not feed well. Physical examination demonstrates the child's head drops back
and the child exhibits sudden flexing of the extremities. As the flexing stops,
the child cries uncontrollably. Funduscopic examination reveals retinal
hemorrhages. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be ordered?
*Skull X-rays *MRI *PET scan *CT scan - ANSWER//CT scan Rationale: An
urgent CT scan should be done to evaluate for intracranial hemorrhage or
hydrocephalus. During a well-child examination of a 24 month old, premature
tooth decay and inflamed gums, particularly of the maxillary incisors, are
noted. The approach to this problem includes: *referring the child to a dentist,
assessing for bottle feeding and fluoride in local water. *recommending
fluoride mouthwash and toothpaste, suggesting celery sticks for snacks.
*providing fluoride treatment, teaching dental hygiene, and eating foods high
in calcium. *teaching the mother to brush the child's teeth, encouraging
vitamin supplements. - ANSWER//referring the child to a dentist, assessing for
bottle feeding and fluoride in local water. Rationale: Refer to a periodontist if
the child has moderate to severe gum disease this ensures comprehensive
care, including orthodontic evaluation if misaligned teeth are contributing to
gum disease. A mother brings her 8-week-old to the clinic who has been
inconsolably crying for the last 4 days. The physical exam shows normal
findings. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse practitioner
order next? *CMP *MRI *Urinalysis *Blood cultures - ANSWER//Urinalysis
Rationale: Newborn irritability can be a sign of various underlying conditions,
including infections, metabolic disturbances, and other medical issues. A
urinalysis is a valuable diagnostic tool that can help identify or rule out urinary
tract infections (UTIs) and other metabolic disorders that might be contributing
, to the infant's symptoms. A 5-year-old girl presents with fever, rash, hacking
cough, and swollen, tender lymph nodes. The rash started on her face and
has spread to the rest of her body. What is the most likely diagnosis?
*Chickenpox *Measles *Fifth disease *Scarlet fever - ANSWER//Measles
Rationale: Measles, also known as rubeola, is a highly contagious viral
infection caused by the measles virus. The symptoms of measles typically
appear in stages over a period of about 10-14 days after exposure to the virus.
Here are the common symptoms associated with measles: Initial Symptoms
(Prodromal Stage): Fever: Often high, typically begins about 10-12 days after
exposure to the virus. Malaise: General feeling of discomfort, tiredness, and
lack of well-being. Runny Nose: Nasal congestion and discharge. Cough: Dry,
persistent cough. Koplik Spots: These are small, white spots that may appear
inside the mouth, usually on the inner lining of the cheek. They are
characteristic of measles and may precede the rash by 1-2 days. Rash
(Exanthematous Stage): A characteristic red or reddish-brown rash typically
begins on the face and hairline, spreading downward to the rest of the body.
The rash consists of flat, red spots that may blend together as they spread. It
usually lasts for about 5-7 days and fades in the order it appeared, often
accompanied by fever. A healthy unvaccinated child is exposed to Hepatitis A.
The best option for therapy is: *zidovudine *inactive hepatitis A vaccine
*hepatitis B vaccine *immune globulin - ANSWER//immune globulin Rationale:
IG is effective when given within 2 weeks (preferably within 2 weeks) of
exposure to HAV. It provides temporary protection, typically lasting about 3 to
6 months.
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-
ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the
left border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic
angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window posterior
to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal
consolidation? *Left upper lobe apex *Right middle lobe *Left upper lobe
lingula *Left lower lobe - ANSWER//Left upper lobe lingula Ratonale: Lingular
consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac
margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right middle
lobe or left upper lobe lingula. The inability to fully relax the myocardium
during relaxation is a trademark of which of the following diagnoses? -
ANSWER//Diastolic dysfunction Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax
is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in
patients with thickened hypertrophic myocardium. An otherwise healthy
African American adult male has been diagnosed with hypertension. He has
been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop
Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood pressure is still
elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe him? -
ANSWER//Calcium channel blocker Rationale: African American patients per
JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a dihydropyridine
calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line
management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle
modifications. Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic
aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered standard of care for serial
surveillance? - ANSWER//CT angiography of the chest Rationale: CT
