NURS 5315 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam 1
(2026) UTA | Verified Questions & A+
Guaranteed Prep Guide
NURS 5315 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY — EXAM 1 (2026) UTA | Verified
Questions & A+ Guaranteed Prep Guide Total Questions: 300 | Multiple Choice
QUESTION 1
Which of the following best describes the process of apoptosis?
A. Uncontrolled cell death resulting in inflammation
B. Cell death caused by external trauma
C. A passive process leading to cellular swelling
D. Necrosis triggered by ischemia
E. Programmed cell death that is orderly and energy-dependent
RATIONALE: Apoptosis is a highly regulated, energy-dependent form of programmed
cell death that does not trigger inflammation. It involves cell shrinkage, chromatin
condensation, and formation of apoptotic bodies, distinguishing it from necrosis.
QUESTION 2
A patient develops cellular injury due to free radical production. Which of the following
mechanisms is responsible for neutralizing free radicals?
A. Glycolysis
B. Oxidative phosphorylation
C. The complement cascade
D. Antioxidant enzymes such as superoxide dismutase
E. Passive diffusion across the cell membrane
RATIONALE: Superoxide dismutase, catalase, and glutathione peroxidase are
antioxidant enzymes that neutralize free radicals and protect cells from oxidative injury.
QUESTION 3
,Which of the following is the most common cause of cellular injury?
A. Hypoxia
B. Chemical exposure
C. Infectious agents
D. Immunologic reactions
E. Nutritional imbalances
RATIONALE: Hypoxia (oxygen deficiency) is the most common and critical cause of
cellular injury because oxygen is essential for aerobic metabolism and ATP production.
QUESTION 4
A nurse is caring for a patient with hypertension. The cardiac muscle cells in this patient
have increased in size. This adaptation is best described as:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Dysplasia
C. Atrophy
D. Hypertrophy
E. Metaplasia
RATIONALE: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size without an increase in cell
number. Cardiac muscle cells respond to increased workload (as in hypertension) by
enlarging.
QUESTION 5
During an inflammatory response, which chemical mediator is primarily responsible for
vasodilation and increased vascular permeability?
A. Bradykinin
B. Histamine
C. Prostaglandin E2
D. Leukotriene B4
,E. Interleukin-10
RATIONALE: Histamine is released by mast cells and basophils and causes
immediate vasodilation and increased vascular permeability during the early phase of
acute inflammation.
QUESTION 6
Which type of necrosis is most commonly associated with myocardial infarction?
A. Liquefactive necrosis
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
E. Gangrenous necrosis
RATIONALE: Coagulative necrosis preserves the structural outline of dead cells and
is the hallmark of ischemic cell death in solid organs, particularly the heart.
QUESTION 7
A 45-year-old smoker develops squamous cell changes in the bronchial epithelium that
was previously columnar. This change is best described as:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Dysplasia
D. Metaplasia
E. Atrophy
RATIONALE: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one differentiated cell type
with another. In smokers, the columnar respiratory epithelium is replaced by squamous
epithelium in response to chronic irritation.
QUESTION 8
, Which of the following interleukins is primarily responsible for stimulating fever during
acute inflammation?
A. IL-4
B. IL-10
C. IL-1
D. IL-6
E. IL-13
RATIONALE: IL-1 (along with IL-6 and TNF) acts as an endogenous pyrogen,
stimulating the hypothalamus to raise the body's set-point temperature, producing fever.
QUESTION 9
The process by which phagocytes engulf and destroy bacteria is called:
A. Pinocytosis
B. Exocytosis
C. Endocytosis
D. Phagocytosis
E. Transcytosis
RATIONALE: Phagocytosis is the process by which professional phagocytes
(neutrophils and macrophages) engulf and digest foreign particles including bacteria.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following best describes the role of C-reactive protein (CRP) in
inflammation?
A. It directly kills bacteria
B. It prevents complement activation
C. It acts as an opsonin enhancing phagocytosis
D. It inhibits neutrophil migration
E. It stimulates histamine release
(2026) UTA | Verified Questions & A+
Guaranteed Prep Guide
NURS 5315 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY — EXAM 1 (2026) UTA | Verified
Questions & A+ Guaranteed Prep Guide Total Questions: 300 | Multiple Choice
QUESTION 1
Which of the following best describes the process of apoptosis?
A. Uncontrolled cell death resulting in inflammation
B. Cell death caused by external trauma
C. A passive process leading to cellular swelling
D. Necrosis triggered by ischemia
E. Programmed cell death that is orderly and energy-dependent
RATIONALE: Apoptosis is a highly regulated, energy-dependent form of programmed
cell death that does not trigger inflammation. It involves cell shrinkage, chromatin
condensation, and formation of apoptotic bodies, distinguishing it from necrosis.
QUESTION 2
A patient develops cellular injury due to free radical production. Which of the following
mechanisms is responsible for neutralizing free radicals?
A. Glycolysis
B. Oxidative phosphorylation
C. The complement cascade
D. Antioxidant enzymes such as superoxide dismutase
E. Passive diffusion across the cell membrane
RATIONALE: Superoxide dismutase, catalase, and glutathione peroxidase are
antioxidant enzymes that neutralize free radicals and protect cells from oxidative injury.
QUESTION 3
,Which of the following is the most common cause of cellular injury?
A. Hypoxia
B. Chemical exposure
C. Infectious agents
D. Immunologic reactions
E. Nutritional imbalances
RATIONALE: Hypoxia (oxygen deficiency) is the most common and critical cause of
cellular injury because oxygen is essential for aerobic metabolism and ATP production.
QUESTION 4
A nurse is caring for a patient with hypertension. The cardiac muscle cells in this patient
have increased in size. This adaptation is best described as:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Dysplasia
C. Atrophy
D. Hypertrophy
E. Metaplasia
RATIONALE: Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size without an increase in cell
number. Cardiac muscle cells respond to increased workload (as in hypertension) by
enlarging.
QUESTION 5
During an inflammatory response, which chemical mediator is primarily responsible for
vasodilation and increased vascular permeability?
A. Bradykinin
B. Histamine
C. Prostaglandin E2
D. Leukotriene B4
,E. Interleukin-10
RATIONALE: Histamine is released by mast cells and basophils and causes
immediate vasodilation and increased vascular permeability during the early phase of
acute inflammation.
QUESTION 6
Which type of necrosis is most commonly associated with myocardial infarction?
A. Liquefactive necrosis
B. Coagulative necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
E. Gangrenous necrosis
RATIONALE: Coagulative necrosis preserves the structural outline of dead cells and
is the hallmark of ischemic cell death in solid organs, particularly the heart.
QUESTION 7
A 45-year-old smoker develops squamous cell changes in the bronchial epithelium that
was previously columnar. This change is best described as:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Hypertrophy
C. Dysplasia
D. Metaplasia
E. Atrophy
RATIONALE: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one differentiated cell type
with another. In smokers, the columnar respiratory epithelium is replaced by squamous
epithelium in response to chronic irritation.
QUESTION 8
, Which of the following interleukins is primarily responsible for stimulating fever during
acute inflammation?
A. IL-4
B. IL-10
C. IL-1
D. IL-6
E. IL-13
RATIONALE: IL-1 (along with IL-6 and TNF) acts as an endogenous pyrogen,
stimulating the hypothalamus to raise the body's set-point temperature, producing fever.
QUESTION 9
The process by which phagocytes engulf and destroy bacteria is called:
A. Pinocytosis
B. Exocytosis
C. Endocytosis
D. Phagocytosis
E. Transcytosis
RATIONALE: Phagocytosis is the process by which professional phagocytes
(neutrophils and macrophages) engulf and digest foreign particles including bacteria.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following best describes the role of C-reactive protein (CRP) in
inflammation?
A. It directly kills bacteria
B. It prevents complement activation
C. It acts as an opsonin enhancing phagocytosis
D. It inhibits neutrophil migration
E. It stimulates histamine release
