1. Topical benzoyl peroxide plus topical antimicrobial.: A 16-year-old presents with
moderate acne consisting of about 25 inflammatory lesions on her face, neck, and
shoulders. First-line treatment can include:
2. Friable cervix: Lisa is a 48-year-old woman who presents with a 5-day history of painful
urination and mucopurulent vaginal discharge. Suspecting chlamydial infection, which of
the following findings would support this diagnosis?
3. Oral azithromycin: The NAAT assay is performed for Lisa and chlamydia infection is
confirmed. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment choice?
4. Encourage screening for HIV and other STIs: Which of the following is recommended
prior to
Lisa leaving the clinic?
5. IM ceftriaxone.: A 27-year-old male is diagnosed with gonorrhea. He is otherwise
healthy, has no drug allergies, and has not been treated with an antimicrobial in the past
year. Recommended treatment is:
6. A prescription is not needed for levonorgestrel emergency contraception.: The NP is
counseling Rene, a 22-year-old woman, who reports having unprotected intercourse 3
days ago and asks about emergency contraception. She is not currently taking any form
of contraception and her last menses ended 7 days ago.
The NP advises:
7. Taking a pregnancy test.: Rene calls the clinic 4 weeks after taking emergency
contraception and reports that she has not yet started her menses. She is concerned
because her cycle is normally predictable. The NP recommends:
8. Squamous cell carcinoma.: Wellman is a 48-year-old roofer who presents because he is
concerned about a painless nodule that developed on the tip of his nose over the past
, 2
couple of months. The nodule is about 8 mm in diameter, opaque, ulcerating, with non-
distinct borders. This most likely represents:
9. Schedule a biopsy of the lesion.: The next-best course of action for Wellman is:
10. "I should take my medication with the largest meal of the day.": A 66-year-old
woman is newly diagnosed with osteoporosis and will initiate daily oral bisphosphonate
therapy. After counseling the patient on the medication, the NP realizes additional
education is needed when the patient says:
11. Mohs micrographic surgery: Which of the following is the preferred treatment option
for malignant melanoma of about 2 cm in diameter at the widest point on the shoulder
of a 47-year-old woman?
12. Completing the series with 2 shots of HPV-9 given over 6 months.: The NP is
reviewing the vaccination history of a 22-year-old woman. The records indicate that she
received the first dose of the 4-valent HPV vaccine 6 years ago but did not complete the
regimen. The NP recommends:
13. Lightly tapping over the nerve elicits a tingling sensation: Which of the following
best describes the Tinel sign used during the evaluation of an individual with suspected
carpal tunnel syndrome?
14 Electromyography: Which of the following is most useful in making the diagnosis of
carpal tunnel syndrome?
15. A corticosteroid injection near the carpal tunnel.: A 56-year-old woman was
diagnosed
with carpal tunnel syndrome 2 weeks ago. She was instructed to use a volar splint at night
and to take acetaminophen for pain relief. Today she reports little improvement in
symptoms. The NP recommends:
, 3
16. Open-angle glaucoma.: Grant is a 70-year-old African American male with a long
history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. An eye examination reveals poor peripheral vision.
He denies any eye pain and there is no redness or any noticeable change in visual acuity
since his last exam. The most likely diagnosis is:
17. Thin, shiny skin
Chronic venous insufficiency is a common complication of DVT and results in decreased
venous return because of vessel damage. The earliest signs include lower leg edema,
aching, and itchiness. The edema progressively worsens over time and results in the
development of thin, shiny skin, often with brown
pigmentation: Nancy is a 68-year-old woman with a history of deep vein thrombosis and
BMI of 36 kg/m2 who presents with complaints of pain, itching and swelling of the lower
legs that have gotten progressively worse over the past 8 months. Suspecting chronic
venous insufficiency, the NP would expect which of the following on physical examination?
18. Prescription compression stockings.: A recommended first-line treatment for chronic
venous insufficiency for Nancy would be:
19. <7.0%.: Doreen is a 52-year-old African American woman with a history of type 2
diabetes mellitus and hypertension. According to the American Diabetes Association,
her A1C goal is:
20. A GLP-1 receptor agonist
The sulfonylureas are associated with hypoglycemia risk
(A) while the thiazolidinediones can be associated with weight gain
(B). The alpha-glucosidase inhibitors are not recommended over other second-line agents
and should only be considered in certain circumstances as other agents are more effective
and
better tolerated: Doreen is currently taking metformin and it is decided she needs a second
agent to meet her A1C goal. She expresses some concern with weight gain and has a fear