1|Page
AAPC CPC Final Exam| 100 Questions with
Correct Verified Answers | 100%
Guaranteed Pass | Medical Coding
Certification Prep
Exam Structure:
Subject: Medical Coding (CPT, ICD-10-CM, HCPCS)
Source: AAPC CPC Final Exam
Format: Multiple Choice
1. What form is used to submit a provider's charge to the insurance
carrier?
A. ABN
B. UB-04
C. CMS-1500
D. Provider reimbursement form
Correct Answer: C. CMS-1500
Rationale:
1. The CMS-1500 claim form is the standard paper claim form used by
physicians and other health care professionals to bill Medicare
carriers and other third-party payers.
2. The UB-04 (CMS-1450) is used by institutional providers such as
hospitals.
2. AAPC credentialed coders have proven mastery of what
information?
A. Code sets
B. Evaluation and management principles
C. Documentation guidelines
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
, 2|Page
Rationale:
1. AAPC certification exams test knowledge of CPT, ICD-10-CM, and
HCPCS Level II code sets.
2. Evaluation and management (E/M) coding principles and
documentation guidelines are also core components.
3. When coding an operative report, what action would NOT be
recommended?
A. Coding from the header without reading the body of the report
B. Reading the body of the report
C. Highlighting unfamiliar words
D. Starting with the procedure listed
Correct Answer: A. Coding from the header without reading the body of
the report
Rationale:
1. The header may not contain complete or accurate information about
the procedure performed.
2. The body of the operative report provides essential details about the
surgical technique, approach, and extent.
4. When are providers responsible for obtaining an ABN for a service
NOT considered medically necessary?
A. During a procedure or service
B. After a denial has been received from Medicare
C. After providing a service or item to a beneficiary
D. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary
Correct Answer: D. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary
Rationale:
1. An Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) must be obtained before the
service is provided.
2. It informs the patient that Medicare may not cover the service and that
they may be financially responsible.
5. Evaluation and management services are often provided in a
standard format such as SOAP notes. What does the acronym SOAP
stand for?
A. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
, 3|Page
B. Standard, Objective, Activity, Period
C. Source, Opinion, Advice, Provider
D. Scope, Observation, Action, Plan
Correct Answer: A. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
Rationale:
1. SOAP notes are a standardized method of documentation used by
health care providers.
2. Subjective: patient's reported symptoms; Objective: measurable
findings; Assessment: diagnosis; Plan: treatment.
6. What is a myocardial infarction?
A. Malfunction in one of the valves in the heart, disrupting blood flow
B. Lack of oxygen to the heart tissue, resulting in tissue death
C. Abnormal heart beats causing pain, nausea and discomfort
D. Overgrowth of muscle tissue, affecting the heart's ability to pump
Correct Answer: B. Lack of oxygen to the heart tissue, resulting in tissue
death
Rationale:
1. Myocardial infarction (heart attack) occurs when blood flow to the
heart is blocked, causing ischemia and necrosis of cardiac muscle.
7. Which of the following is true about the function of the cochlea?
A. It helps with balance only
B. It helps with balance and sound transmission
C. Its function is to excrete cerumen (wax) to help keep the ear clean
D. It transmits sound only
Correct Answer: D. It transmits sound only
Rationale:
1. The cochlea is the auditory portion of the inner ear responsible for
sound transmission.
2. Balance is controlled by the semicircular canals and vestibular
apparatus.
8. Which of the following best describes psoriasis?
A. An inflammatory condition characterized by redness pustular and
vesicular lesions, crusts, and scales
B. An allergic reaction characterized by wheals and generally accompanied
, 4|Page
by pruritus
C. A chronic condition characterized by red, dry, elevated lesions, covered
by silvery scales
D. A contagious infection of skin generally caused by staphylococcus
bacterium
Correct Answer: C. A chronic condition characterized by red, dry, elevated
lesions, covered by silvery scales
Rationale:
1. Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune skin disorder with well-demarcated,
erythematous plaques covered by silvery scales.
9. A thin membrane lining the chambers of the heart and valves is
called the:
A. Epicardium
B. Endocardium
C. Pericardium
D. Myocardium
Correct Answer: B. Endocardium
Rationale:
1. The endocardium is the innermost layer of the heart, lining the
chambers and valves.
10. The dome-shaped muscle under the lungs flattening during
inspiration is the:
A. Diaphragm
B. Pleura
C. Mediastinum
D. Bronchus
Correct Answer: A. Diaphragm
Rationale:
1. The diaphragm contracts and flattens during inspiration, increasing
the volume of the thoracic cavity.
11. When a patient has a condition that is both acute and chronic and
there are separate entries for both, how is it reported?
A. Code only the chronic code
B. Code only the acute code
AAPC CPC Final Exam| 100 Questions with
Correct Verified Answers | 100%
Guaranteed Pass | Medical Coding
Certification Prep
Exam Structure:
Subject: Medical Coding (CPT, ICD-10-CM, HCPCS)
Source: AAPC CPC Final Exam
Format: Multiple Choice
1. What form is used to submit a provider's charge to the insurance
carrier?
A. ABN
B. UB-04
C. CMS-1500
D. Provider reimbursement form
Correct Answer: C. CMS-1500
Rationale:
1. The CMS-1500 claim form is the standard paper claim form used by
physicians and other health care professionals to bill Medicare
carriers and other third-party payers.
2. The UB-04 (CMS-1450) is used by institutional providers such as
hospitals.
2. AAPC credentialed coders have proven mastery of what
information?
A. Code sets
B. Evaluation and management principles
C. Documentation guidelines
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
, 2|Page
Rationale:
1. AAPC certification exams test knowledge of CPT, ICD-10-CM, and
HCPCS Level II code sets.
2. Evaluation and management (E/M) coding principles and
documentation guidelines are also core components.
3. When coding an operative report, what action would NOT be
recommended?
A. Coding from the header without reading the body of the report
B. Reading the body of the report
C. Highlighting unfamiliar words
D. Starting with the procedure listed
Correct Answer: A. Coding from the header without reading the body of
the report
Rationale:
1. The header may not contain complete or accurate information about
the procedure performed.
2. The body of the operative report provides essential details about the
surgical technique, approach, and extent.
4. When are providers responsible for obtaining an ABN for a service
NOT considered medically necessary?
A. During a procedure or service
B. After a denial has been received from Medicare
C. After providing a service or item to a beneficiary
D. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary
Correct Answer: D. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary
Rationale:
1. An Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) must be obtained before the
service is provided.
2. It informs the patient that Medicare may not cover the service and that
they may be financially responsible.
5. Evaluation and management services are often provided in a
standard format such as SOAP notes. What does the acronym SOAP
stand for?
A. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
, 3|Page
B. Standard, Objective, Activity, Period
C. Source, Opinion, Advice, Provider
D. Scope, Observation, Action, Plan
Correct Answer: A. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
Rationale:
1. SOAP notes are a standardized method of documentation used by
health care providers.
2. Subjective: patient's reported symptoms; Objective: measurable
findings; Assessment: diagnosis; Plan: treatment.
6. What is a myocardial infarction?
A. Malfunction in one of the valves in the heart, disrupting blood flow
B. Lack of oxygen to the heart tissue, resulting in tissue death
C. Abnormal heart beats causing pain, nausea and discomfort
D. Overgrowth of muscle tissue, affecting the heart's ability to pump
Correct Answer: B. Lack of oxygen to the heart tissue, resulting in tissue
death
Rationale:
1. Myocardial infarction (heart attack) occurs when blood flow to the
heart is blocked, causing ischemia and necrosis of cardiac muscle.
7. Which of the following is true about the function of the cochlea?
A. It helps with balance only
B. It helps with balance and sound transmission
C. Its function is to excrete cerumen (wax) to help keep the ear clean
D. It transmits sound only
Correct Answer: D. It transmits sound only
Rationale:
1. The cochlea is the auditory portion of the inner ear responsible for
sound transmission.
2. Balance is controlled by the semicircular canals and vestibular
apparatus.
8. Which of the following best describes psoriasis?
A. An inflammatory condition characterized by redness pustular and
vesicular lesions, crusts, and scales
B. An allergic reaction characterized by wheals and generally accompanied
, 4|Page
by pruritus
C. A chronic condition characterized by red, dry, elevated lesions, covered
by silvery scales
D. A contagious infection of skin generally caused by staphylococcus
bacterium
Correct Answer: C. A chronic condition characterized by red, dry, elevated
lesions, covered by silvery scales
Rationale:
1. Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune skin disorder with well-demarcated,
erythematous plaques covered by silvery scales.
9. A thin membrane lining the chambers of the heart and valves is
called the:
A. Epicardium
B. Endocardium
C. Pericardium
D. Myocardium
Correct Answer: B. Endocardium
Rationale:
1. The endocardium is the innermost layer of the heart, lining the
chambers and valves.
10. The dome-shaped muscle under the lungs flattening during
inspiration is the:
A. Diaphragm
B. Pleura
C. Mediastinum
D. Bronchus
Correct Answer: A. Diaphragm
Rationale:
1. The diaphragm contracts and flattens during inspiration, increasing
the volume of the thoracic cavity.
11. When a patient has a condition that is both acute and chronic and
there are separate entries for both, how is it reported?
A. Code only the chronic code
B. Code only the acute code
