ANCC FNP BOARD EXAM LATEST
2025/ 2026 ACTUAL EXAM TEST
BANK| FAMILY NURSING
PRACTITIONER ANCC BOARD EXAM
PREP WITH COMPLETE 120 REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+
(MOST RECENT!!)
Question 1
A 68-year-old male presents for a routine physical. He has a 40-
pack-year smoking history but quit 10 years ago. According to the
USPSTF guidelines, what is the most appropriate lung cancer
screening recommendation?
A. No screening is indicated as he quit >5 years ago
B. Annual screening with low-dose computed tomography (LDCT)
until age 80
,C. Annual screening with chest x-ray
D. One-time screening with LDCT
Correct Answer: B. Annual screening with low-dose computed
tomography (LDCT) until age 80.
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends annual LDCT screening for
adults aged 50 to 80 years who have a 20 pack-year smoking
history and currently smoke or have quit within the past 15 years.
This patient meets the criteria with his 40-pack-year history and
quit date within 15 years .
Test-taking tip: Pay attention to the specific numbers in the
question (age, pack-years, years since quitting)—these are
frequently tested USPSTF criteria.
Question 2
During a well-child exam for a 6-month-old infant, which finding
requires immediate further evaluation?
A. Unable to sit up without support
B. Presence of a Moro reflex
C. Absence of a red reflex on ophthalmologic exam
D. Palmar grasp present
Correct Answer: C. Absence of a red reflex on ophthalmologic
exam.
Rationale: An absent red reflex is an abnormal finding that
requires immediate ophthalmology referral to rule out
,retinoblastoma, cataracts, or other serious eye pathology. The
other findings are developmentally normal for a 6-month-old .
Test-taking tip: Red reflex testing is critical in pediatric exams—
know when absence indicates emergency versus normal variation.
Question 3
A 72-year-old female reports progressive difficulty with memory
over the last year. During the exam, you ask her to draw a clock
showing 3:00. She places the numbers correctly but draws both
hands pointing at the 3. This finding is most consistent with:
A. Delirium
B. Normal aging
C. Early Alzheimer's disease
D. Depression
Correct Answer: C. Early Alzheimer's disease.
Rationale: The clock-drawing test is a cognitive screening tool.
Placing numbers correctly but drawing both hands pointing to the
same number indicates executive dysfunction and visuospatial
impairment, which is characteristic of early Alzheimer's disease.
Delirium has acute onset, and normal aging would not produce
this specific error pattern .
Question 4
, A 45-year-old patient with a history of hypertension presents with
a blood pressure of 145/95 mmHg in the right arm. You repeat
the measurement in the left arm and obtain 130/88 mmHg. What
is the most appropriate next step?
A. Diagnose hypertension and start a thiazide diuretic
B. Average the two readings to guide treatment
C. Consider further evaluation for subclavian stenosis or aortic
dissection
D. Instruct the patient on lifestyle modifications and re-check in 6
months
Correct Answer: C. Consider further evaluation for subclavian
stenosis or aortic dissection.
Rationale: A significant inter-arm blood pressure difference (>10-
15 mmHg) is abnormal and suggests pathology such as
subclavian stenosis, aortic dissection, or other arterial disorders. It
is not a normal variant .
Question 5
During a cardiovascular exam, you note a split S2 heart sound that
persists throughout the respiratory cycle. This finding is most
suggestive of:
A. A normal variant in young athletes
B. Atrial septal defect
C. Pulmonic stenosis
D. Aortic stenosis
2025/ 2026 ACTUAL EXAM TEST
BANK| FAMILY NURSING
PRACTITIONER ANCC BOARD EXAM
PREP WITH COMPLETE 120 REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+
(MOST RECENT!!)
Question 1
A 68-year-old male presents for a routine physical. He has a 40-
pack-year smoking history but quit 10 years ago. According to the
USPSTF guidelines, what is the most appropriate lung cancer
screening recommendation?
A. No screening is indicated as he quit >5 years ago
B. Annual screening with low-dose computed tomography (LDCT)
until age 80
,C. Annual screening with chest x-ray
D. One-time screening with LDCT
Correct Answer: B. Annual screening with low-dose computed
tomography (LDCT) until age 80.
Rationale: The USPSTF recommends annual LDCT screening for
adults aged 50 to 80 years who have a 20 pack-year smoking
history and currently smoke or have quit within the past 15 years.
This patient meets the criteria with his 40-pack-year history and
quit date within 15 years .
Test-taking tip: Pay attention to the specific numbers in the
question (age, pack-years, years since quitting)—these are
frequently tested USPSTF criteria.
Question 2
During a well-child exam for a 6-month-old infant, which finding
requires immediate further evaluation?
A. Unable to sit up without support
B. Presence of a Moro reflex
C. Absence of a red reflex on ophthalmologic exam
D. Palmar grasp present
Correct Answer: C. Absence of a red reflex on ophthalmologic
exam.
Rationale: An absent red reflex is an abnormal finding that
requires immediate ophthalmology referral to rule out
,retinoblastoma, cataracts, or other serious eye pathology. The
other findings are developmentally normal for a 6-month-old .
Test-taking tip: Red reflex testing is critical in pediatric exams—
know when absence indicates emergency versus normal variation.
Question 3
A 72-year-old female reports progressive difficulty with memory
over the last year. During the exam, you ask her to draw a clock
showing 3:00. She places the numbers correctly but draws both
hands pointing at the 3. This finding is most consistent with:
A. Delirium
B. Normal aging
C. Early Alzheimer's disease
D. Depression
Correct Answer: C. Early Alzheimer's disease.
Rationale: The clock-drawing test is a cognitive screening tool.
Placing numbers correctly but drawing both hands pointing to the
same number indicates executive dysfunction and visuospatial
impairment, which is characteristic of early Alzheimer's disease.
Delirium has acute onset, and normal aging would not produce
this specific error pattern .
Question 4
, A 45-year-old patient with a history of hypertension presents with
a blood pressure of 145/95 mmHg in the right arm. You repeat
the measurement in the left arm and obtain 130/88 mmHg. What
is the most appropriate next step?
A. Diagnose hypertension and start a thiazide diuretic
B. Average the two readings to guide treatment
C. Consider further evaluation for subclavian stenosis or aortic
dissection
D. Instruct the patient on lifestyle modifications and re-check in 6
months
Correct Answer: C. Consider further evaluation for subclavian
stenosis or aortic dissection.
Rationale: A significant inter-arm blood pressure difference (>10-
15 mmHg) is abnormal and suggests pathology such as
subclavian stenosis, aortic dissection, or other arterial disorders. It
is not a normal variant .
Question 5
During a cardiovascular exam, you note a split S2 heart sound that
persists throughout the respiratory cycle. This finding is most
suggestive of:
A. A normal variant in young athletes
B. Atrial septal defect
C. Pulmonic stenosis
D. Aortic stenosis
