MED SURGE HESI UPDATED PRACTICE
STUDY GUIDE Updated Exam 2026 WITH
Recent Newest Verified And Well
Analyzed Exam Questions (Actual Exam
2026-2027) Correct Detailed & Verified
ANSWERS (100% Accurate Solutions)
ALREADY GRADED A+|| NEWEST
VERSION Of The Exam Guarantee Pass!!
A male client has just undergone a laryngectomy and has a cuffed tracheostomy tube in
place. When initiating bolus tube feedings postoperatively, when should the nurse
inflate the cuff?
A.Immediately after feeding
B.Just prior to tube feeding
C.Continuous inflation is required
D.Inflation is not required - ANSWERS-B
Rationale:The cuff should be inflated before the feeding to block the trachea and
prevent food from entering if oral feedings are started while a cuffed tracheostomy tube
is in place. It should remain inflated throughout the feeding to prevent aspiration of food
into the respiratory system. Options A and D place the client at risk for aspiration.
Option C places the client at risk for tracheal wall necrosis.
A client with a nasogastric tube attached to low suction states that she is nauseated.
The nurse assesses that there has been no drainage through the nasogastric tube in
the last 2 hours. Which action should the nurse take first?
A.Irrigate the nasogastric tube with sterile normal saline.
B.Reposition the client on her side.
C.Advance the nasogastric tube 5 cm.
,D.Administer an intravenous antiemetic as prescribed. - ANSWERS-B
Rationale:The immediate priority is to determine if the tube is functioning correctly,
which would then relieve the client's nausea. The least invasive intervention,
repositioning the client, should be attempted first, followed by options A and C, unless
either of these interventions is contraindicated. If these measures are unsuccessful, the
client may require option D.
The nurse is conducting an osteoporosis screening clinic at a health fair. What
information should the nurse provide to individuals who are at risk for osteoporosis?
(Select all that apply.)
A.Encourage alcohol and smoking cessation.
B.Suggest supplementing diet with vitamin E.
C.Promote regular weight-bearing exercises.
D.Implement a home safety plan to prevent falls.
E.Propose a regular sleep pattern of 8 hours nightly. - ANSWERS-A, C, D
Rationale:Options A, C, and D are factors that decrease the risk for developing
osteoporosis. Vitamin D and calcium are important supplements to aid in the decrease
of bone loss. Regular sleep patterns are important to overall health but are not identified
with a decreasing risk for osteoporosis.
The nurse is assessing a client with acute pancreatitis. Which finding requires the most
immediate intervention by the nurse?
A.The client's amylase level is three times higher than the normal level.
B.The client has a carpal spasm when taking a blood pressure.
C.On a 1 to 10 scale, the client tells the nurse that her epigastric pain is at 7.
D.The client states that she will continue to drink alcohol after going home. -
ANSWERS-B
Rationale:A positive Trousseau sign indicates hypocalcemia and always requires further
assessment and intervention, regardless of the cause (40% to 75% of those with acute
pancreatitis experience hypocalcemia, which can have serious, systemic effects). A key
diagnostic finding of pancreatitis is serum amylase and lipase levels that are two to five
times higher than the normal value. Severe boring pain is an expected symptom for this
diagnosis, but dealing with the hypocalcemia is a priority over administering an
,analgesic. Long-term planning and teaching do not have the same immediate
importance as a positive Trousseau sign.
An older client is admitted with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. Which symptom
should the nurse report to the health care provider after assessing the client?
A.Leukocytosis and febrile
B.Polycythemia and crackles
C.Pharyngitis and sputum production
D.Confusion and tachycardia - ANSWERS-D
Rationale:The onset of pneumonia in the older client may be signaled by general
deterioration, confusion, increased heart rate, and/or increased respiratory rate. Options
A, B, and C are often absent in the older client with bacterial pneumonia.
A client in the emergency department is bleeding profusely from a gunshot wound to the
abdomen. What action should the nurse immediately?
A.Place the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position to promote cerebral blood flow.
B.Turn the client prone to place pressure on the abdominal wound to help staunch the
bleeding.
C.Maintain the client in a supine position to reduce diaphragmatic pressure and
visualize the wound.
D.Put the client on the right side to apply pressure to the liver and spleen to stop
hemorrhaging. - ANSWERS-C
Rationale:Placing the client in a supine position reduces diaphragmatic pressure,
thereby enhancing oxygenation, and allows for visualization of the abdominal wound.
Option A compromises diaphragmatic expansion and inhibits pressoreceptor activity.
Option B places the client at risk of evisceration of the abdominal wound and increased
bleeding. Option D will not stop internal bleeding in the liver and spleen caused by the
gunshot wound.
The client is return demonstrating wrapping of the left limb amputated above the knee.
The nurse evaluates the client is starting the wrapping method correctly when the client
places the end of the bandage at which point?
A.Around the waist
, B.At the inner aspect of the left stump
C.At the outer aspect of the left stump
D.At the left groin area - ANSWERS-A
Rationale:The waist is the anchor point for the bandage for an above the knee
amputation.
A postoperative client receives a Schedule II opioid analgesic for pain. Which
assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
A.Hypoactive bowel sounds with abdominal distention
B.Client reports continued pain of 8 on a 10-point scale
C.Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min, with O2 saturation of 85%
D.Client reports nausea after receiving the medication - ANSWERS-C
Rationale:Administration of a Schedule II opioid analgesic can result in respiratory
depression, which requires immediate intervention by the nurse to prevent respiratory
arrest. Options A, B, and D require action by the nurse but are of less priority than
option C.
When developing a discharge teaching plan for a client after the insertion of a
permanent pacemaker, the nurse writes a goal of "The client will verbalize symptoms of
pacemaker failure." Which behavior indicates that the goal has been met?
A.The client demonstrates the procedures to change the rate of the pacemaker using a
magnet.
B.The client carries a card in his wallet stating the type and serial number of the
pacemaker.
C.The client tells the nurse that it is important to report redness and tenderness at the
insertion site.
D.The client states that changes in the pulse and feelings of dizziness are significant
changes. - ANSWERS-D
Rationale:Changes in pulse rate and/or rhythm may indicate pacer failure. Feelings of
dizziness may be caused by a decreased heart rate, leading to decreased cardiac
output. The rate of a pacemaker is not changed by a client, although the client may be
familiar with this procedure as explained by his health care provider. Option B is an
important step in preparing the client for discharge but does not demonstrate knowledge
STUDY GUIDE Updated Exam 2026 WITH
Recent Newest Verified And Well
Analyzed Exam Questions (Actual Exam
2026-2027) Correct Detailed & Verified
ANSWERS (100% Accurate Solutions)
ALREADY GRADED A+|| NEWEST
VERSION Of The Exam Guarantee Pass!!
A male client has just undergone a laryngectomy and has a cuffed tracheostomy tube in
place. When initiating bolus tube feedings postoperatively, when should the nurse
inflate the cuff?
A.Immediately after feeding
B.Just prior to tube feeding
C.Continuous inflation is required
D.Inflation is not required - ANSWERS-B
Rationale:The cuff should be inflated before the feeding to block the trachea and
prevent food from entering if oral feedings are started while a cuffed tracheostomy tube
is in place. It should remain inflated throughout the feeding to prevent aspiration of food
into the respiratory system. Options A and D place the client at risk for aspiration.
Option C places the client at risk for tracheal wall necrosis.
A client with a nasogastric tube attached to low suction states that she is nauseated.
The nurse assesses that there has been no drainage through the nasogastric tube in
the last 2 hours. Which action should the nurse take first?
A.Irrigate the nasogastric tube with sterile normal saline.
B.Reposition the client on her side.
C.Advance the nasogastric tube 5 cm.
,D.Administer an intravenous antiemetic as prescribed. - ANSWERS-B
Rationale:The immediate priority is to determine if the tube is functioning correctly,
which would then relieve the client's nausea. The least invasive intervention,
repositioning the client, should be attempted first, followed by options A and C, unless
either of these interventions is contraindicated. If these measures are unsuccessful, the
client may require option D.
The nurse is conducting an osteoporosis screening clinic at a health fair. What
information should the nurse provide to individuals who are at risk for osteoporosis?
(Select all that apply.)
A.Encourage alcohol and smoking cessation.
B.Suggest supplementing diet with vitamin E.
C.Promote regular weight-bearing exercises.
D.Implement a home safety plan to prevent falls.
E.Propose a regular sleep pattern of 8 hours nightly. - ANSWERS-A, C, D
Rationale:Options A, C, and D are factors that decrease the risk for developing
osteoporosis. Vitamin D and calcium are important supplements to aid in the decrease
of bone loss. Regular sleep patterns are important to overall health but are not identified
with a decreasing risk for osteoporosis.
The nurse is assessing a client with acute pancreatitis. Which finding requires the most
immediate intervention by the nurse?
A.The client's amylase level is three times higher than the normal level.
B.The client has a carpal spasm when taking a blood pressure.
C.On a 1 to 10 scale, the client tells the nurse that her epigastric pain is at 7.
D.The client states that she will continue to drink alcohol after going home. -
ANSWERS-B
Rationale:A positive Trousseau sign indicates hypocalcemia and always requires further
assessment and intervention, regardless of the cause (40% to 75% of those with acute
pancreatitis experience hypocalcemia, which can have serious, systemic effects). A key
diagnostic finding of pancreatitis is serum amylase and lipase levels that are two to five
times higher than the normal value. Severe boring pain is an expected symptom for this
diagnosis, but dealing with the hypocalcemia is a priority over administering an
,analgesic. Long-term planning and teaching do not have the same immediate
importance as a positive Trousseau sign.
An older client is admitted with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. Which symptom
should the nurse report to the health care provider after assessing the client?
A.Leukocytosis and febrile
B.Polycythemia and crackles
C.Pharyngitis and sputum production
D.Confusion and tachycardia - ANSWERS-D
Rationale:The onset of pneumonia in the older client may be signaled by general
deterioration, confusion, increased heart rate, and/or increased respiratory rate. Options
A, B, and C are often absent in the older client with bacterial pneumonia.
A client in the emergency department is bleeding profusely from a gunshot wound to the
abdomen. What action should the nurse immediately?
A.Place the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position to promote cerebral blood flow.
B.Turn the client prone to place pressure on the abdominal wound to help staunch the
bleeding.
C.Maintain the client in a supine position to reduce diaphragmatic pressure and
visualize the wound.
D.Put the client on the right side to apply pressure to the liver and spleen to stop
hemorrhaging. - ANSWERS-C
Rationale:Placing the client in a supine position reduces diaphragmatic pressure,
thereby enhancing oxygenation, and allows for visualization of the abdominal wound.
Option A compromises diaphragmatic expansion and inhibits pressoreceptor activity.
Option B places the client at risk of evisceration of the abdominal wound and increased
bleeding. Option D will not stop internal bleeding in the liver and spleen caused by the
gunshot wound.
The client is return demonstrating wrapping of the left limb amputated above the knee.
The nurse evaluates the client is starting the wrapping method correctly when the client
places the end of the bandage at which point?
A.Around the waist
, B.At the inner aspect of the left stump
C.At the outer aspect of the left stump
D.At the left groin area - ANSWERS-A
Rationale:The waist is the anchor point for the bandage for an above the knee
amputation.
A postoperative client receives a Schedule II opioid analgesic for pain. Which
assessment finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
A.Hypoactive bowel sounds with abdominal distention
B.Client reports continued pain of 8 on a 10-point scale
C.Respiratory rate of 12 breaths/min, with O2 saturation of 85%
D.Client reports nausea after receiving the medication - ANSWERS-C
Rationale:Administration of a Schedule II opioid analgesic can result in respiratory
depression, which requires immediate intervention by the nurse to prevent respiratory
arrest. Options A, B, and D require action by the nurse but are of less priority than
option C.
When developing a discharge teaching plan for a client after the insertion of a
permanent pacemaker, the nurse writes a goal of "The client will verbalize symptoms of
pacemaker failure." Which behavior indicates that the goal has been met?
A.The client demonstrates the procedures to change the rate of the pacemaker using a
magnet.
B.The client carries a card in his wallet stating the type and serial number of the
pacemaker.
C.The client tells the nurse that it is important to report redness and tenderness at the
insertion site.
D.The client states that changes in the pulse and feelings of dizziness are significant
changes. - ANSWERS-D
Rationale:Changes in pulse rate and/or rhythm may indicate pacer failure. Feelings of
dizziness may be caused by a decreased heart rate, leading to decreased cardiac
output. The rate of a pacemaker is not changed by a client, although the client may be
familiar with this procedure as explained by his health care provider. Option B is an
important step in preparing the client for discharge but does not demonstrate knowledge
