2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
ATI PN Maternal Newborn 2026-2027 Proctored Exam COMPLETE 450 Q&A
Study Bank (NGN Style)-
This ultimate study bundle features 450 high-yield multiple-choice questions meticulously crafted
for the ATI PN Maternal Newborn 2026 Proctored Exam, incorporating the latest Next Generation
NCLEX (NGN) clinical judgment standards. Every question includes a bolded correct answer and
a detailed rationale in italics, covering essential topics from prenatal complications (preeclampsia,
placenta previa) to postpartum care and neonatal assessments (Apgar, reflexes, NAS). Designed to
help nursing students achieve a Level 2 or 3, this comprehensive resource is the perfect "all-in-one"
tool for mastering maternal-child nursing concepts and passing the proctored assessment with
confidence.
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 34 weeks gestation. Which finding should be reported to
the provider?
A. Dependent edema in the ankles.
B. Blurred vision and flashes of light.
C. Increased vaginal discharge.
D. Shortness of breath when lying flat.
Rationale: Visual disturbances are "danger signs" indicating severe preeclampsia or
worsening hypertension.
2. A client in labor has late decelerations on the fetal monitor. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Increase the IV oxytocin rate.
B. Turn the client to a side-lying (lateral) position.
C. Perform a vaginal exam.
D. Request an ultrasound.
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency; side-lying improves
blood flow to the placenta.
,2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum. The fundus is boggy and
displaced to the right. Action?
A. Perform fundal massage immediately.
B. Assist the client to void in the bathroom.
C. Administer oxytocin IM.
D. Notify the provider of a hemorrhage.
Rationale: A displaced fundus to the right usually indicates a full bladder, which prevents
the uterus from contracting.
4. Which medication is administered to a newborn within 1 hour of birth to prevent
ophthalmia neonatorum?
A. Vitamin K (Phytonadione).
B. Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment.
C. Hepatitis B vaccine.
D. Nystatin.
Rationale: Erythromycin prevents blindness caused by infections like gonorrhea or
chlamydia acquired during birth.
5. A client at 32 weeks gestation has painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. What is
contraindicated?
A. Fetal heart rate monitoring.
B. Performing a pelvic/vaginal exam.
C. Bed rest.
D. Starting an IV line.
Rationale: Painless bleeding suggests Placenta Previa; a vaginal exam can cause fatal
hemorrhage by puncturing the placenta.
6. A nurse is teaching a postpartum client about the Rubella vaccine. What is the most
important instruction?
A. Do not breastfeed for 24 hours.
B. Avoid becoming pregnant for at least 1 month.
C. Expect a high fever for two days.
D. The vaccine is given via the oral route.
Rationale: Rubella is a live virus vaccine; pregnancy must be avoided to prevent
teratogenic effects on a fetus.
7. A newborn’s Apgar score at 1 minute is 8. Which intervention is appropriate?
B. Dry the infant and place skin-to-skin with the mother.
A. Start bag-mask ventilation.
C. Administer emergency epinephrine.
,2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
D. Move the infant to the NICU immediately.
Rationale: A score of 7-10 is normal; drying prevents heat loss, and skin-to-skin
stabilizes the infant.
8. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate. Which finding indicates
toxicity?
A. Blood pressure 140/90.
B. Absence of deep tendon reflexes (DTRs).
C. Urine output of 40 mL/hr.
D. Increased fetal movement.
Rationale: Magnesium is a CNS depressant; loss of reflexes is an early sign that the
level is too high.
9. A client is in the transition phase of labor (8 cm). She feels the urge to push. What
should the nurse say?
A. "Go ahead and push with the next contraction."
B. “Try to pant or blow through the urge to push.”
C. "I will get the doctor to start your epidural now."
D. "You are not allowed to make noise."
Rationale: Pushing before 10 cm dilation can cause cervical edema or tearing.
10. What is the priority intervention for a newborn immediately after birth?
A. Weighing the infant.
B. Maintaining a clear airway (suctioning).
C. Administering Vitamin K.
D. Determining the gestational age.
Rationale: Airway/Breathing is always the priority (ABC).
11. A nurse is checking a newborn for jaundice. Where is the best place to assess first?
A. The nose or forehead (blanching the skin).
B. The soles of the feet.
C. The diaper area.
D. The ears.
Rationale: Jaundice typically appears in a head-to-toe (cephalocaudal) progression.
12. A client is prescribed Methylergonovine (Methergine) for postpartum hemorrhage. What
is a contraindication?
A. History of asthma.
B. Hypertension (BP 150/100).
C. Breastfeeding.
, 2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
D. Previous C-section.
Rationale: Methergine causes vasoconstriction and can trigger a hypertensive crisis.
13. A client at 10 weeks gestation reports severe nausea and vomiting. Lab results show
ketonuria. Diagnosis?
A. Gestational Hypertension.
B. Hyperemesis Gravidarum.
C. Gestational Diabetes.
D. Placental Abruption.
Rationale: Excessive vomiting leading to weight loss and ketones in the urine is the
hallmark of hyperemesis.
14. A nurse is teaching about car seat safety. Which instruction is correct?
A. Place the car seat rear-facing in the back seat.
B. Use a 45-degree angle for the seat.
C. The chest clip should be at the level of the abdomen.
D. Place a thick blanket behind the baby's back.
Rationale: Rear-facing in the back seat is the safest position for newborns to prevent
neck injury.
15. Which reflex is the nurse testing by clapping hands near the newborn?
A. Babinski reflex.
B. Moro reflex (Startle).
C. Rooting reflex.
D. Tonic neck reflex.
Rationale: The Moro reflex is the infant's response to a sudden loud noise or loss of
support.
16. A client has an umbilical cord prolapse. What is the immediate nursing action?
A. Cover the cord with a dry towel.
B. Apply upward pressure on the fetal presenting part with a sterile gloved hand.
C. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
D. Encourage the client to push.
Rationale: Pressure must be kept off the cord to maintain fetal oxygenation until an
emergency C-section occurs.
17. A nurse is caring for a client with Mastitis. What should she tell the client?
A. “Continue to breastfeed or pump frequently on both sides.”
B. “Stop breastfeeding immediately.”
C. “Apply cold packs only.”
D. “Wear a tight, restrictive bra.”
ATI PN Maternal Newborn 2026-2027 Proctored Exam COMPLETE 450 Q&A
Study Bank (NGN Style)-
This ultimate study bundle features 450 high-yield multiple-choice questions meticulously crafted
for the ATI PN Maternal Newborn 2026 Proctored Exam, incorporating the latest Next Generation
NCLEX (NGN) clinical judgment standards. Every question includes a bolded correct answer and
a detailed rationale in italics, covering essential topics from prenatal complications (preeclampsia,
placenta previa) to postpartum care and neonatal assessments (Apgar, reflexes, NAS). Designed to
help nursing students achieve a Level 2 or 3, this comprehensive resource is the perfect "all-in-one"
tool for mastering maternal-child nursing concepts and passing the proctored assessment with
confidence.
1. A nurse is assessing a client at 34 weeks gestation. Which finding should be reported to
the provider?
A. Dependent edema in the ankles.
B. Blurred vision and flashes of light.
C. Increased vaginal discharge.
D. Shortness of breath when lying flat.
Rationale: Visual disturbances are "danger signs" indicating severe preeclampsia or
worsening hypertension.
2. A client in labor has late decelerations on the fetal monitor. What is the nurse's priority
action?
A. Increase the IV oxytocin rate.
B. Turn the client to a side-lying (lateral) position.
C. Perform a vaginal exam.
D. Request an ultrasound.
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency; side-lying improves
blood flow to the placenta.
,2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours postpartum. The fundus is boggy and
displaced to the right. Action?
A. Perform fundal massage immediately.
B. Assist the client to void in the bathroom.
C. Administer oxytocin IM.
D. Notify the provider of a hemorrhage.
Rationale: A displaced fundus to the right usually indicates a full bladder, which prevents
the uterus from contracting.
4. Which medication is administered to a newborn within 1 hour of birth to prevent
ophthalmia neonatorum?
A. Vitamin K (Phytonadione).
B. Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment.
C. Hepatitis B vaccine.
D. Nystatin.
Rationale: Erythromycin prevents blindness caused by infections like gonorrhea or
chlamydia acquired during birth.
5. A client at 32 weeks gestation has painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. What is
contraindicated?
A. Fetal heart rate monitoring.
B. Performing a pelvic/vaginal exam.
C. Bed rest.
D. Starting an IV line.
Rationale: Painless bleeding suggests Placenta Previa; a vaginal exam can cause fatal
hemorrhage by puncturing the placenta.
6. A nurse is teaching a postpartum client about the Rubella vaccine. What is the most
important instruction?
A. Do not breastfeed for 24 hours.
B. Avoid becoming pregnant for at least 1 month.
C. Expect a high fever for two days.
D. The vaccine is given via the oral route.
Rationale: Rubella is a live virus vaccine; pregnancy must be avoided to prevent
teratogenic effects on a fetus.
7. A newborn’s Apgar score at 1 minute is 8. Which intervention is appropriate?
B. Dry the infant and place skin-to-skin with the mother.
A. Start bag-mask ventilation.
C. Administer emergency epinephrine.
,2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
D. Move the infant to the NICU immediately.
Rationale: A score of 7-10 is normal; drying prevents heat loss, and skin-to-skin
stabilizes the infant.
8. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate. Which finding indicates
toxicity?
A. Blood pressure 140/90.
B. Absence of deep tendon reflexes (DTRs).
C. Urine output of 40 mL/hr.
D. Increased fetal movement.
Rationale: Magnesium is a CNS depressant; loss of reflexes is an early sign that the
level is too high.
9. A client is in the transition phase of labor (8 cm). She feels the urge to push. What
should the nurse say?
A. "Go ahead and push with the next contraction."
B. “Try to pant or blow through the urge to push.”
C. "I will get the doctor to start your epidural now."
D. "You are not allowed to make noise."
Rationale: Pushing before 10 cm dilation can cause cervical edema or tearing.
10. What is the priority intervention for a newborn immediately after birth?
A. Weighing the infant.
B. Maintaining a clear airway (suctioning).
C. Administering Vitamin K.
D. Determining the gestational age.
Rationale: Airway/Breathing is always the priority (ABC).
11. A nurse is checking a newborn for jaundice. Where is the best place to assess first?
A. The nose or forehead (blanching the skin).
B. The soles of the feet.
C. The diaper area.
D. The ears.
Rationale: Jaundice typically appears in a head-to-toe (cephalocaudal) progression.
12. A client is prescribed Methylergonovine (Methergine) for postpartum hemorrhage. What
is a contraindication?
A. History of asthma.
B. Hypertension (BP 150/100).
C. Breastfeeding.
, 2026 UPDATED QUESTIONS DOWNLOAD
D. Previous C-section.
Rationale: Methergine causes vasoconstriction and can trigger a hypertensive crisis.
13. A client at 10 weeks gestation reports severe nausea and vomiting. Lab results show
ketonuria. Diagnosis?
A. Gestational Hypertension.
B. Hyperemesis Gravidarum.
C. Gestational Diabetes.
D. Placental Abruption.
Rationale: Excessive vomiting leading to weight loss and ketones in the urine is the
hallmark of hyperemesis.
14. A nurse is teaching about car seat safety. Which instruction is correct?
A. Place the car seat rear-facing in the back seat.
B. Use a 45-degree angle for the seat.
C. The chest clip should be at the level of the abdomen.
D. Place a thick blanket behind the baby's back.
Rationale: Rear-facing in the back seat is the safest position for newborns to prevent
neck injury.
15. Which reflex is the nurse testing by clapping hands near the newborn?
A. Babinski reflex.
B. Moro reflex (Startle).
C. Rooting reflex.
D. Tonic neck reflex.
Rationale: The Moro reflex is the infant's response to a sudden loud noise or loss of
support.
16. A client has an umbilical cord prolapse. What is the immediate nursing action?
A. Cover the cord with a dry towel.
B. Apply upward pressure on the fetal presenting part with a sterile gloved hand.
C. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
D. Encourage the client to push.
Rationale: Pressure must be kept off the cord to maintain fetal oxygenation until an
emergency C-section occurs.
17. A nurse is caring for a client with Mastitis. What should she tell the client?
A. “Continue to breastfeed or pump frequently on both sides.”
B. “Stop breastfeeding immediately.”
C. “Apply cold packs only.”
D. “Wear a tight, restrictive bra.”
