KLUBSYBEAR MEDTECH REVIEW AND TUTORIALS
HEMATOLOGY RMT
MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION RMT
Instruction: D. Mask only
Choose the correct answer to each of the following
10. The first hemostatic response to injury of a blood vessel is:
questions. DON’T FORGET TO PRAY!!! A. Platelet adhesion
B. Platelet aggregation
1. EDTA is used in concentrations of ___ mg/1 mL of whole blood. C. Vasoconstriction
A. 0.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood D. Extrinsic coagulation
B. 1.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood
C. 2.0 mg/1 mL of whole blood 11. Platelet aggregation studies revealed normal aggregation
D. 2.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood curves with collagen, epinephrine, and ADP, but an abnormal
aggregation curve with ristocetin. Based on these findings, what is
2. A 7.0 mL EDTA tube is received in the laboratory containing only the differential diagnosis?
2.0 mL of blood. If the laboratory is using manual techniques, A. Von Willebrand disease and Bernard-Soulier syndrome
which of the following tests will most likely be erroneous? B. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia and von Willebrand disease
A. RBC count C. Storage pool disease and Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
B. Hemoglobin D. Bernard-Soulier syndrome and storage pool disease
C. Hematocrit
D. WBC count 12. Which set of platelet responses would be most likely be
associated with Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia?
3. EDTA-induced pseudothrombocytopenia can be identified on A. Normal platelet aggregation response to ADP and ristocetin;
blood smear by: decreased response to collagen
A. Finding platelets pushed to the feathered end B. Normal platelet aggregation response to collagen; decreased
B. Finding platelets adhering to WBCs response to ADP and collagen
C. Finding no platelets at all on the smear C. Normal platelet aggregation response to ristocetin;
D. Bluish discoloration to the macroscopic appearance of the decreased response to collagen, ADP and epinephrine
slide D. Normal platelet aggregation response to ADP; decreased
response to collagen and ristocetin
4. Sodium citrate in the concentration of ___ solution has been
adopted as the appropriate concentration for coagulation studies. 13. To evaluate normal platelet numbers in an appropriate area of
A. 1.5% a blood smear, approximately how many platelets, should be
B. 2.8% observed per oil immersion field?
C. 3.2% A. 1 to 4
D. 3.8% B. 8 to 20
C. 4 to 10
5. Which results would be expected for the PT and APTT in a D. 20 to 50
patient with polycythemia?
A. Both prolonged 14. In the Ivy method of bleeding time, the blood pressure cuff is
B. Both shortened inflated to:
C. Normal PT, prolonged APTT A. 20 mm. Hg
D. Both normal B. 30 mm. Hg
C. 40 mm. Hg
6. What is the proper angle of needle insertion for phlebotomy? D. 45 mm. Hg
A. 5 degrees
B. 15 degrees 15. Normal platelet adhesion depends upon:
C. 35 degrees A. Fibrinogen
D. 45 degrees B. Glycoprotein Ib
C. Glycoprotein IIb, IIIa complex
7. Most common complication encountered in obtaining a blood D. Calcium
specimen:
A. Bruising 16. Which defect characterizes Gray’s syndrome?
B. Hematoma A. Platelet adhesion defect
C. Hemoconcentration B. Dense granule defect
D. Anemia C. Alpha granule defect
D. Coagulation defect
8. A blood sample is needed from a patient with IV fluids running in
both arms. Which of the following is an acceptable procedure? 17. In which of the following lists the steps of hemostatic response
A. Any obtainable vein is satisfactory. in the correct order?
B. Obtain sample from above the IV site. A. Fibrinolysis → injury → secondary hemostasis → primary
C. Obtain sample from below the IV site with special hemostasis
restrictions. B. Injury → primary hemostasis → secondary hemostasis →
D. Disconnect the IV line. fibrinolysis
C. Injury → secondary hemostasis → primary hemostasis →
9. In enteric isolation, the technologist is required to wear fibrinolysis
A. Gown and gloves D. Injury → fibrinolysis → primary hemostasis → secondary
B. Gown, mask and gloves hemostasis
C. Gown, mask, gloves and shoe coverings
1
, KLUBSYBEAR MEDTECH REVIEW AND TUTORIALS
HEMATOLOGY RMT
MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION RMT
18. Normal PT and APTT results in a patient with a poor wound 27. The observation of a normal reptilase time and a prolonged
healing may be associated with: thrombin time is indicative of:
A. Factor VII deficiency A. Presence of fibrin degradation products
B. Factor VIII deficiency B. Hypoplasminogenemia
C. Factor XII deficiency C. Dysfibrinogenemia
D. Factor XIII deficiency D. Presence of heparin
19. Plasma thromboplastin or prothrombinase includes:* 28. The D-dimer test is a specific test for:
A. Calcium ion only A. Plasminogen activation
B. Complex of calcium ions and activated factor XI B. Plasmin degradation of fibrinogen
C. Complex of activated factor VII and calcium ions C. Plasmin degradation of fibrin
D. Complex of activated factors X and V, platelet factor 3 and D. Factor XIII
calcium ion
22. The Bethesda assay is used for which determination?
20. Which of the following factors is not present in BaSO4 A. Lupus anticoagulant titer
adsorbed plasma? B. Factor VIII inhibitor titer
A. Factor VIII C. Factor V Leiden titer
B. Factor II D. Protein S deficiency
C. Factor XII
D. Factor V 30. Fibrinogen, which has been implicated as a primary risk factor
for thrombotic disorders, increases approximately _____ mg/dL
21. Which of the following factor deficiencies is associated with per decade in the elderly (65 to 79 years), 174 from 280 mg/dL to
either no bleeding or only a minor bleeding tendency, even after over 300 mg/dL.
trauma or surgery? A. 1 mg/dL per decade
A. Factor X B. 5 mg/dL per decade
B. Factor XII C. 10 mg/dL per decade
C. Factor XIII D. 15 mg/dL per decade
D. Factor V
23. he target INR for pulmonary embolism (PE) treatment:
22. Reversal of heparin overdose can be achieved by administration A. 1
of: B. 2
A. Vitamin K C. 3
B. Anti-thrombin D. 4
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Warfarin 24. Which of the following is considered to be an advantage of the
MECHANICAL end-point detection methodology?
23.Which of the following laboratory findings is associated with A. It is not affected by lipemia in the test sample
Factor XIII deficiency? B. It has the ability to provide a graph of clot formation
A. Prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time C. It can incorporate multiple wavelengths into a single testing
B. Clot solubility in a 5 molar urea solution sequence
C. Prolonged thrombin time D. It can measure proteins that do not have fibrin formation as
D. Prolonged prothrombin time the end-point
24. The following results were obtained on a patient: prolonged 32. In end-stage liver disease, the fibrinogen level may fall to less
bleeding time, normal platelet count, normal PT, and prolonged than ___mg/dL, which is a mark of liver failure.
APTT. Which of the following disorders is most consistent with A. Less than 100 mg/dL
these results? B. Less than 200 mg/dL
A. Hemophilia A C. Less than 300 mg/dL
B. Hemophilia B D. Less than 400 mg/dL
C. vWD
D. Glanzmann's thrombasthenia 33. Which of the following locations is not a site of
extramedullary hematopoiesis?
25. The abnormal APTT seen in pathological circulating A. Bone marrow
anticoagulant is: B. Liver
A. Corrected with aged serum C. Spleen
B. Corrected with adsorbed plasma D. Thymus
C. Corrected with normal plasma
D. Not corrected with any of the above 34. Patients with renal failure often exhibit compromised
hematopoietic activity because of which of the following?
26. A prolonged Stypven (Russell viper venom) time is associated A. Concurrent depression of the thyroid
with deficiency of the following factors EXCEPT: B. Decreased production of erythropoietin
A. Factor I C. Decreased production of GM-CSF
B. Factor II D. BM suppression caused by medications
C. Factor X
D. Factor VII 35. Which of the following best describes the function of the
Rapoport-Leubering pathway?
2
HEMATOLOGY RMT
MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION RMT
Instruction: D. Mask only
Choose the correct answer to each of the following
10. The first hemostatic response to injury of a blood vessel is:
questions. DON’T FORGET TO PRAY!!! A. Platelet adhesion
B. Platelet aggregation
1. EDTA is used in concentrations of ___ mg/1 mL of whole blood. C. Vasoconstriction
A. 0.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood D. Extrinsic coagulation
B. 1.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood
C. 2.0 mg/1 mL of whole blood 11. Platelet aggregation studies revealed normal aggregation
D. 2.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood curves with collagen, epinephrine, and ADP, but an abnormal
aggregation curve with ristocetin. Based on these findings, what is
2. A 7.0 mL EDTA tube is received in the laboratory containing only the differential diagnosis?
2.0 mL of blood. If the laboratory is using manual techniques, A. Von Willebrand disease and Bernard-Soulier syndrome
which of the following tests will most likely be erroneous? B. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia and von Willebrand disease
A. RBC count C. Storage pool disease and Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
B. Hemoglobin D. Bernard-Soulier syndrome and storage pool disease
C. Hematocrit
D. WBC count 12. Which set of platelet responses would be most likely be
associated with Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia?
3. EDTA-induced pseudothrombocytopenia can be identified on A. Normal platelet aggregation response to ADP and ristocetin;
blood smear by: decreased response to collagen
A. Finding platelets pushed to the feathered end B. Normal platelet aggregation response to collagen; decreased
B. Finding platelets adhering to WBCs response to ADP and collagen
C. Finding no platelets at all on the smear C. Normal platelet aggregation response to ristocetin;
D. Bluish discoloration to the macroscopic appearance of the decreased response to collagen, ADP and epinephrine
slide D. Normal platelet aggregation response to ADP; decreased
response to collagen and ristocetin
4. Sodium citrate in the concentration of ___ solution has been
adopted as the appropriate concentration for coagulation studies. 13. To evaluate normal platelet numbers in an appropriate area of
A. 1.5% a blood smear, approximately how many platelets, should be
B. 2.8% observed per oil immersion field?
C. 3.2% A. 1 to 4
D. 3.8% B. 8 to 20
C. 4 to 10
5. Which results would be expected for the PT and APTT in a D. 20 to 50
patient with polycythemia?
A. Both prolonged 14. In the Ivy method of bleeding time, the blood pressure cuff is
B. Both shortened inflated to:
C. Normal PT, prolonged APTT A. 20 mm. Hg
D. Both normal B. 30 mm. Hg
C. 40 mm. Hg
6. What is the proper angle of needle insertion for phlebotomy? D. 45 mm. Hg
A. 5 degrees
B. 15 degrees 15. Normal platelet adhesion depends upon:
C. 35 degrees A. Fibrinogen
D. 45 degrees B. Glycoprotein Ib
C. Glycoprotein IIb, IIIa complex
7. Most common complication encountered in obtaining a blood D. Calcium
specimen:
A. Bruising 16. Which defect characterizes Gray’s syndrome?
B. Hematoma A. Platelet adhesion defect
C. Hemoconcentration B. Dense granule defect
D. Anemia C. Alpha granule defect
D. Coagulation defect
8. A blood sample is needed from a patient with IV fluids running in
both arms. Which of the following is an acceptable procedure? 17. In which of the following lists the steps of hemostatic response
A. Any obtainable vein is satisfactory. in the correct order?
B. Obtain sample from above the IV site. A. Fibrinolysis → injury → secondary hemostasis → primary
C. Obtain sample from below the IV site with special hemostasis
restrictions. B. Injury → primary hemostasis → secondary hemostasis →
D. Disconnect the IV line. fibrinolysis
C. Injury → secondary hemostasis → primary hemostasis →
9. In enteric isolation, the technologist is required to wear fibrinolysis
A. Gown and gloves D. Injury → fibrinolysis → primary hemostasis → secondary
B. Gown, mask and gloves hemostasis
C. Gown, mask, gloves and shoe coverings
1
, KLUBSYBEAR MEDTECH REVIEW AND TUTORIALS
HEMATOLOGY RMT
MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION RMT
18. Normal PT and APTT results in a patient with a poor wound 27. The observation of a normal reptilase time and a prolonged
healing may be associated with: thrombin time is indicative of:
A. Factor VII deficiency A. Presence of fibrin degradation products
B. Factor VIII deficiency B. Hypoplasminogenemia
C. Factor XII deficiency C. Dysfibrinogenemia
D. Factor XIII deficiency D. Presence of heparin
19. Plasma thromboplastin or prothrombinase includes:* 28. The D-dimer test is a specific test for:
A. Calcium ion only A. Plasminogen activation
B. Complex of calcium ions and activated factor XI B. Plasmin degradation of fibrinogen
C. Complex of activated factor VII and calcium ions C. Plasmin degradation of fibrin
D. Complex of activated factors X and V, platelet factor 3 and D. Factor XIII
calcium ion
22. The Bethesda assay is used for which determination?
20. Which of the following factors is not present in BaSO4 A. Lupus anticoagulant titer
adsorbed plasma? B. Factor VIII inhibitor titer
A. Factor VIII C. Factor V Leiden titer
B. Factor II D. Protein S deficiency
C. Factor XII
D. Factor V 30. Fibrinogen, which has been implicated as a primary risk factor
for thrombotic disorders, increases approximately _____ mg/dL
21. Which of the following factor deficiencies is associated with per decade in the elderly (65 to 79 years), 174 from 280 mg/dL to
either no bleeding or only a minor bleeding tendency, even after over 300 mg/dL.
trauma or surgery? A. 1 mg/dL per decade
A. Factor X B. 5 mg/dL per decade
B. Factor XII C. 10 mg/dL per decade
C. Factor XIII D. 15 mg/dL per decade
D. Factor V
23. he target INR for pulmonary embolism (PE) treatment:
22. Reversal of heparin overdose can be achieved by administration A. 1
of: B. 2
A. Vitamin K C. 3
B. Anti-thrombin D. 4
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Warfarin 24. Which of the following is considered to be an advantage of the
MECHANICAL end-point detection methodology?
23.Which of the following laboratory findings is associated with A. It is not affected by lipemia in the test sample
Factor XIII deficiency? B. It has the ability to provide a graph of clot formation
A. Prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time C. It can incorporate multiple wavelengths into a single testing
B. Clot solubility in a 5 molar urea solution sequence
C. Prolonged thrombin time D. It can measure proteins that do not have fibrin formation as
D. Prolonged prothrombin time the end-point
24. The following results were obtained on a patient: prolonged 32. In end-stage liver disease, the fibrinogen level may fall to less
bleeding time, normal platelet count, normal PT, and prolonged than ___mg/dL, which is a mark of liver failure.
APTT. Which of the following disorders is most consistent with A. Less than 100 mg/dL
these results? B. Less than 200 mg/dL
A. Hemophilia A C. Less than 300 mg/dL
B. Hemophilia B D. Less than 400 mg/dL
C. vWD
D. Glanzmann's thrombasthenia 33. Which of the following locations is not a site of
extramedullary hematopoiesis?
25. The abnormal APTT seen in pathological circulating A. Bone marrow
anticoagulant is: B. Liver
A. Corrected with aged serum C. Spleen
B. Corrected with adsorbed plasma D. Thymus
C. Corrected with normal plasma
D. Not corrected with any of the above 34. Patients with renal failure often exhibit compromised
hematopoietic activity because of which of the following?
26. A prolonged Stypven (Russell viper venom) time is associated A. Concurrent depression of the thyroid
with deficiency of the following factors EXCEPT: B. Decreased production of erythropoietin
A. Factor I C. Decreased production of GM-CSF
B. Factor II D. BM suppression caused by medications
C. Factor X
D. Factor VII 35. Which of the following best describes the function of the
Rapoport-Leubering pathway?
2
