NURS 120 Introduction to Medical Surgical Nursing Quiz 2026 – WCU
1. A nurse is caring for a patient in the PACU. What is the priority nursing
assessment?
A. Checking airway patency
B. Monitoring urine output
C. Assessing the surgical dressing
D. Measuring blood pressure
Answer: A
Rationale: Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) are the priority. In the immediate
postoperative period, maintaining a patent airway is the most critical assessment.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is a patient with chronic renal failure most at
risk for developing?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hyperkalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: The kidneys are responsible for excreting potassium. When renal function is
impaired, potassium levels can rise to dangerous levels.
,3. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s ABG results: pH 7.30, PaCO2 52 mmHg, and
HCO3 24 mEq/L. Which acid-base imbalance is present?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: A
Rationale: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. An elevated PaCO2 indicates a respiratory
cause, while the HCO3 remains in the normal range.
4. The nurse is preparing a patient for surgery. Who is legally responsible for
obtaining the informed consent?
A. The registered nurse
B. The anesthesiologist
C. The surgeon
D. The hospital administrator
Answer: C
Rationale: It is the surgeon’s responsibility to explain the procedure, risks, and benefits.
The nurse’s role is typically to witness the signature.
5. Which clinical manifestation is a classic sign of hypocalcemia?
A. Trousseau’s sign
B. Negative Chvostek’s sign
C. Polyuria
D. Constipation
Answer: A
Rationale: Trousseau’s sign (carpal spasm induced by inflating a BP cuff) and Chvostek’s
sign (facial twitching) are indicators of hypocalcemia.
, 6. A patient presents with a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which ECG change
should the nurse monitor for?
A. Tall, peaked T waves
B. ST-segment depression
C. Prominent U waves
D. Prolonged QT interval
Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia causes tall, peaked T waves. Hypokalemia is associated with
prominent U waves.
7. What is the primary goal of the ‘Time-Out’ procedure in the operating room?
A. To allow the surgeon to rest
B. To check the anesthesia equipment
C. To ensure correct patient, site, and procedure
D. To count all surgical instruments
Answer: C
Rationale: The ‘Time-Out’ is a safety protocol to verify that the surgery is performed on
the correct patient at the correct site with the correct procedure.
8. Which IV fluid is considered isotonic?
A. 0.45% Sodium Chloride
B. 0.9% Sodium Chloride
C. 3% Sodium Chloride
D. Dextrose 10% in water
Answer: B
Rationale: 0.9% Normal Saline and Lactated Ringer’s are isotonic solutions, meaning they
have the same osmolality as body fluids.
1. A nurse is caring for a patient in the PACU. What is the priority nursing
assessment?
A. Checking airway patency
B. Monitoring urine output
C. Assessing the surgical dressing
D. Measuring blood pressure
Answer: A
Rationale: Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) are the priority. In the immediate
postoperative period, maintaining a patent airway is the most critical assessment.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is a patient with chronic renal failure most at
risk for developing?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hyperkalemia
Answer: D
Rationale: The kidneys are responsible for excreting potassium. When renal function is
impaired, potassium levels can rise to dangerous levels.
,3. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s ABG results: pH 7.30, PaCO2 52 mmHg, and
HCO3 24 mEq/L. Which acid-base imbalance is present?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: A
Rationale: A pH below 7.35 indicates acidosis. An elevated PaCO2 indicates a respiratory
cause, while the HCO3 remains in the normal range.
4. The nurse is preparing a patient for surgery. Who is legally responsible for
obtaining the informed consent?
A. The registered nurse
B. The anesthesiologist
C. The surgeon
D. The hospital administrator
Answer: C
Rationale: It is the surgeon’s responsibility to explain the procedure, risks, and benefits.
The nurse’s role is typically to witness the signature.
5. Which clinical manifestation is a classic sign of hypocalcemia?
A. Trousseau’s sign
B. Negative Chvostek’s sign
C. Polyuria
D. Constipation
Answer: A
Rationale: Trousseau’s sign (carpal spasm induced by inflating a BP cuff) and Chvostek’s
sign (facial twitching) are indicators of hypocalcemia.
, 6. A patient presents with a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which ECG change
should the nurse monitor for?
A. Tall, peaked T waves
B. ST-segment depression
C. Prominent U waves
D. Prolonged QT interval
Answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia causes tall, peaked T waves. Hypokalemia is associated with
prominent U waves.
7. What is the primary goal of the ‘Time-Out’ procedure in the operating room?
A. To allow the surgeon to rest
B. To check the anesthesia equipment
C. To ensure correct patient, site, and procedure
D. To count all surgical instruments
Answer: C
Rationale: The ‘Time-Out’ is a safety protocol to verify that the surgery is performed on
the correct patient at the correct site with the correct procedure.
8. Which IV fluid is considered isotonic?
A. 0.45% Sodium Chloride
B. 0.9% Sodium Chloride
C. 3% Sodium Chloride
D. Dextrose 10% in water
Answer: B
Rationale: 0.9% Normal Saline and Lactated Ringer’s are isotonic solutions, meaning they
have the same osmolality as body fluids.
