PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN HEMATOLOGY (PART 2)
1. Platelet alpha granules contain:
1. Platelet factor 4 3. Platelet derived growth factor (PDGF)
2. Beta thromboglobulin 4. Fibrinogen
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is prolonged in:
1. Hemophilia B 3. Parahemophilia
2. Hemophilia A 4. Thrombocytopenia
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
3. Bleeding disorders associated with vascular abnormality:
1. Hemorrhagic telangiectasia 3. Scurvy
2. Ehlers-Danlos syndromes 4. Senile purpura
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. The test reagent in PT contains which of the following substance(s)?
1. Calcium ions 3. Tissue thromboplastin
2. Kaolin 4. Celite
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
5. The test reagent in APTT contains which of the following substance(s)?
1. Citrated plasma 3. Tissue thromboplastin
2. Calcium ions 4. Phospholipids
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
6. Bleeding disorder(s) in which platelets fail to aggregate with ristocetin:
1. von Willebrand’s disease 3. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
2. Glanzmann’s disease 4. Storage pool disease
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
7. The fibrinogen group of coagulation factors is:
1. Present in serum 3. Adsorbed by barium sulfate
2. Not vitamin K dependent 4. Consumed during coagulation
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
8. Thrombocytosis may be associated with:
1. Post-splenectomy 3. Polycythemia vera
2. DIC 4. Megaloblastic anemia
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
9. Which coagulation factor(s) is(are) removed by barium sulfate or aluminum hydroxide?
1. Factor II 3. Factor IX
2. Factor VIII 4. Factor I
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
10. Coagulation factor(s) affected by coumarin drugs is(are):
1. II 3. IX
2. VII 4. X
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. The hemorrhagic problems associated with scurvy are due to a deficiency of which of the following:
A. Vitamin C C. Vitamin K
B. Prothrombin D. Protein C
12. The number of platelets an average megakaryocyte generates is approximately:
A. 25 - 50 C. 200 - 500
B. 200 - 500 D. 2000 - 4000
13. Which of the following is NOT a cause of thrombocytopenia?
A. Splenomegaly C. Increased thrombopoietin
B. Chemotheraphy D. Aplastic anemia
14. Which of the following is NOT a normal maturation stage for platelets?
A. Megakaryoblast C. Micromegakaryocyte
B. Promegakaryocyte D. Megakaryocyte
15. The recommended type of microscopy for the performance of manual platelet counts is:
A. Electron C. Light
B. Darkfield D. Phase contrast
16. Which of the following is not synthesized in the liver?
A. Protein C C. von Willebrand factor
B. Plasminogen D. All of these
17. Which of the following will NOT cause the thrombin time to be prolonged?
A. Fibrin degradation products C. Factor I deficiency
B. Heparin D. Factor II deficiency
, 2
18. A patient on therapeutic warfarin will most likely have a(an):
A. Normal PT/INR, increased APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count
B. Increased PT/INR, increased APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count
C. Normal PT/INR, normal APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count
D. Increased PT/INR, normal APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count
19. The activity of the lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin antibodies appears to be directed against:
A. Factor V C. Factor IX
B. Factor VIII D. Phospholipid
20. Thrombocytosis is characteristic of:
A. DIC C. Polycythemia vera
B. Splenomegaly D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
21. If a physician suspects a qualitative platelet defect, the most useful test to order is the:
A. Platelet count C. Urea solubility test
B. Prothrombin time D. Bleeding time
22. Reversal of heparin overdose can be achieved by administration of:
A. Vitamin K C. Antithrombin
B. Protamine sulfate D. Warfarin
23. The prothrombin time will detect deficiencies in which pathway(s)?
A. Extrinsic C. Intrinsic
B. Extrinsic and common D. Intrinsic and common
24. Relative polycythemia is characterized by:
1. Increase total red cell mass 3. Normal plasma volume
2. Normal total red cell mass 4. Decreased plasma volume
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
25. Microcytic, hypochromic anemia:
1. Aplastic anemia 3. Pernicious anemia
2. Acute blood loss 4. Chronic blood loss
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
26. Most patients with beta thalassemia have:
1. Normocytic, normochromic anemia 3. Decreased hemoglobin F
2. Occasional target cells 4. Increased hemoglobin A2
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
27. Peripheral blood picture of megaloblastic anemia:
1. Hypersegmented neutrophil 3. Oval macrocytes
2. Thrombocytopenia 4. Leukopenia
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
28. Laboratory findings in hereditary spherocytosis include:
1. Increased autohemolysis corrected by glucose 3. Reticulocytosis
2. Decreased osmotic fragility 4. Positive direct antiglobulin test
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
29. Reticulocytes:
1. Immature red cells 3. Increased after hemorrhage
2. Contain remnants of RNA 4. Stained with Romanowsky stains
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
30. Hemolytic anemias are associated with:
1. Increase in reticulocytes 3. Reduced RBC survival
2. Increase serum haptoglobin 4. Decrease free hemoglobin
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
31. The hemoglobins which can be differentiated by using only cellulose acetate electrophoresis at pH 8.6 are:
1. D and S 3. C and E
2. O and C 4. A1 and H
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
32. Heinz bodies are formed in which of the following conditions?
1. G6PD deficiency 3. Presence of unstable hemoglobin
2. Hereditary spherocytosis 4. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
33. Which of the following red cell inclusions cannot be seen by Romanowsky stain?
1. Basophilic stipplings 3. Pappenheimer bodies
2. Howell-Jolly bodies 4. Heinz bodies
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
1. Platelet alpha granules contain:
1. Platelet factor 4 3. Platelet derived growth factor (PDGF)
2. Beta thromboglobulin 4. Fibrinogen
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. The activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) is prolonged in:
1. Hemophilia B 3. Parahemophilia
2. Hemophilia A 4. Thrombocytopenia
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
3. Bleeding disorders associated with vascular abnormality:
1. Hemorrhagic telangiectasia 3. Scurvy
2. Ehlers-Danlos syndromes 4. Senile purpura
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. The test reagent in PT contains which of the following substance(s)?
1. Calcium ions 3. Tissue thromboplastin
2. Kaolin 4. Celite
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
5. The test reagent in APTT contains which of the following substance(s)?
1. Citrated plasma 3. Tissue thromboplastin
2. Calcium ions 4. Phospholipids
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
6. Bleeding disorder(s) in which platelets fail to aggregate with ristocetin:
1. von Willebrand’s disease 3. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
2. Glanzmann’s disease 4. Storage pool disease
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
7. The fibrinogen group of coagulation factors is:
1. Present in serum 3. Adsorbed by barium sulfate
2. Not vitamin K dependent 4. Consumed during coagulation
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
8. Thrombocytosis may be associated with:
1. Post-splenectomy 3. Polycythemia vera
2. DIC 4. Megaloblastic anemia
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
9. Which coagulation factor(s) is(are) removed by barium sulfate or aluminum hydroxide?
1. Factor II 3. Factor IX
2. Factor VIII 4. Factor I
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
10. Coagulation factor(s) affected by coumarin drugs is(are):
1. II 3. IX
2. VII 4. X
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. The hemorrhagic problems associated with scurvy are due to a deficiency of which of the following:
A. Vitamin C C. Vitamin K
B. Prothrombin D. Protein C
12. The number of platelets an average megakaryocyte generates is approximately:
A. 25 - 50 C. 200 - 500
B. 200 - 500 D. 2000 - 4000
13. Which of the following is NOT a cause of thrombocytopenia?
A. Splenomegaly C. Increased thrombopoietin
B. Chemotheraphy D. Aplastic anemia
14. Which of the following is NOT a normal maturation stage for platelets?
A. Megakaryoblast C. Micromegakaryocyte
B. Promegakaryocyte D. Megakaryocyte
15. The recommended type of microscopy for the performance of manual platelet counts is:
A. Electron C. Light
B. Darkfield D. Phase contrast
16. Which of the following is not synthesized in the liver?
A. Protein C C. von Willebrand factor
B. Plasminogen D. All of these
17. Which of the following will NOT cause the thrombin time to be prolonged?
A. Fibrin degradation products C. Factor I deficiency
B. Heparin D. Factor II deficiency
, 2
18. A patient on therapeutic warfarin will most likely have a(an):
A. Normal PT/INR, increased APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count
B. Increased PT/INR, increased APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count
C. Normal PT/INR, normal APTT, normal bleeding time, normal platelet count
D. Increased PT/INR, normal APTT, prolonged bleeding time, low platelet count
19. The activity of the lupus anticoagulant and anticardiolipin antibodies appears to be directed against:
A. Factor V C. Factor IX
B. Factor VIII D. Phospholipid
20. Thrombocytosis is characteristic of:
A. DIC C. Polycythemia vera
B. Splenomegaly D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
21. If a physician suspects a qualitative platelet defect, the most useful test to order is the:
A. Platelet count C. Urea solubility test
B. Prothrombin time D. Bleeding time
22. Reversal of heparin overdose can be achieved by administration of:
A. Vitamin K C. Antithrombin
B. Protamine sulfate D. Warfarin
23. The prothrombin time will detect deficiencies in which pathway(s)?
A. Extrinsic C. Intrinsic
B. Extrinsic and common D. Intrinsic and common
24. Relative polycythemia is characterized by:
1. Increase total red cell mass 3. Normal plasma volume
2. Normal total red cell mass 4. Decreased plasma volume
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
25. Microcytic, hypochromic anemia:
1. Aplastic anemia 3. Pernicious anemia
2. Acute blood loss 4. Chronic blood loss
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
26. Most patients with beta thalassemia have:
1. Normocytic, normochromic anemia 3. Decreased hemoglobin F
2. Occasional target cells 4. Increased hemoglobin A2
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
27. Peripheral blood picture of megaloblastic anemia:
1. Hypersegmented neutrophil 3. Oval macrocytes
2. Thrombocytopenia 4. Leukopenia
A. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
28. Laboratory findings in hereditary spherocytosis include:
1. Increased autohemolysis corrected by glucose 3. Reticulocytosis
2. Decreased osmotic fragility 4. Positive direct antiglobulin test
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
29. Reticulocytes:
1. Immature red cells 3. Increased after hemorrhage
2. Contain remnants of RNA 4. Stained with Romanowsky stains
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
30. Hemolytic anemias are associated with:
1. Increase in reticulocytes 3. Reduced RBC survival
2. Increase serum haptoglobin 4. Decrease free hemoglobin
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
31. The hemoglobins which can be differentiated by using only cellulose acetate electrophoresis at pH 8.6 are:
1. D and S 3. C and E
2. O and C 4. A1 and H
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
32. Heinz bodies are formed in which of the following conditions?
1. G6PD deficiency 3. Presence of unstable hemoglobin
2. Hereditary spherocytosis 4. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
33. Which of the following red cell inclusions cannot be seen by Romanowsky stain?
1. Basophilic stipplings 3. Pappenheimer bodies
2. Howell-Jolly bodies 4. Heinz bodies
A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3 D. Only 4
