NSG 6440 Predictor Final Exam ()
Questions and Answers with Explanation, Verified
Revised Full Exam
INTRODUCTION .
This comprehensive study guide is designed for Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) students
preparing for the NSG 6440 Predictor Final Exam for the 2026/2027 academic cycle.
NSG 6440 is a graduate-level nursing course focused on advanced primary care across the
lifespan, emphasizing clinical reasoning, differential diagnosis, and evidence-based
management of acute and chronic conditions commonly seen in family practice .
Key Content Areas:
Domain Focus Topics
Cardiology Hypertension, dyslipidemia, heart failure, ischemic heart disease
Endocrinology Diabetes mellitus, thyroid disorders, metabolic syndrome
Women's Health Contraception, menopause, breast health, pregnancy-related conditions
Men's Health BPH, testicular disorders, prostate health
Infectious Disease UTIs, respiratory infections, STIs, mononucleosis
Neurology Headaches, seizures, stroke, neurodegenerative disorders
Pulmonology Asthma, COPD, pneumonia, sleep apnea
Gastroenterology GERD, peptic ulcer disease, IBD, hepatitis
Dermatology Acne, psoriasis, skin infections, rashes
,Domain Focus Topics
Pharmacology Drug interactions, contraindications, medication management
Ethics/Legal Malpractice, informed consent, ethical dilemmas
Prevention/Screening Immunizations, cancer screening, health maintenance
EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
Q1
A 52-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and fatigue.
His random glucose is 230 mg/dL and HbA1c is 8.2%. First-line management should
include:
A. Initiate insulin therapy immediately
B. Start metformin and lifestyle modification
C. Refer for bariatric surgery
D. Start DPP-4 inhibitor
Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin + lifestyle changes are first-line for newly diagnosed type 2
diabetes unless contraindicated. Metformin reduces hepatic glucose production and
improves insulin sensitivity. Lifestyle modifications including dietary changes and
exercise are essential components of initial management .
Q2
A 68-year-old with COPD and chronic hypoxia should have oxygen target saturation of:
A. ≥ 99%
B. 95–99%
C. 88–92%
D. 80–85%
, Answer: C
Rationale: COPD patients with chronic hypercapnia risk suppressing respiratory drive if
over-oxygenated; 88–92% target is safe. This lower target prevents the loss of hypoxic
drive that some COPD patients rely on for respiratory stimulation .
Q3
A 25-year-old with acute asthma exacerbation has wheezing, tachypnea, and O₂ sat
89%. Best initial treatment is:
A. Intravenous magnesium sulfate
B. Inhaled short-acting beta-agonist
C. Oral corticosteroids only
D. Nebulized anticholinergic only
Answer: B
Rationale: Inhaled SABA (short-acting beta-agonist) is first-line to relieve
bronchospasm; add systemic corticosteroids if needed. The SABA provides rapid
bronchodilation, which is the priority intervention in acute asthma .
Q4
A 45-year-old with hypertension and diabetes has microalbuminuria. The best
medication to reduce progression of renal disease is:
A. Beta-blocker
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Diuretic only
Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce intraglomerular pressure and slow diabetic
nephropathy progression. They also provide cardiovascular protection and are first-line
for hypertensive patients with diabetes and albuminuria .
Questions and Answers with Explanation, Verified
Revised Full Exam
INTRODUCTION .
This comprehensive study guide is designed for Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) students
preparing for the NSG 6440 Predictor Final Exam for the 2026/2027 academic cycle.
NSG 6440 is a graduate-level nursing course focused on advanced primary care across the
lifespan, emphasizing clinical reasoning, differential diagnosis, and evidence-based
management of acute and chronic conditions commonly seen in family practice .
Key Content Areas:
Domain Focus Topics
Cardiology Hypertension, dyslipidemia, heart failure, ischemic heart disease
Endocrinology Diabetes mellitus, thyroid disorders, metabolic syndrome
Women's Health Contraception, menopause, breast health, pregnancy-related conditions
Men's Health BPH, testicular disorders, prostate health
Infectious Disease UTIs, respiratory infections, STIs, mononucleosis
Neurology Headaches, seizures, stroke, neurodegenerative disorders
Pulmonology Asthma, COPD, pneumonia, sleep apnea
Gastroenterology GERD, peptic ulcer disease, IBD, hepatitis
Dermatology Acne, psoriasis, skin infections, rashes
,Domain Focus Topics
Pharmacology Drug interactions, contraindications, medication management
Ethics/Legal Malpractice, informed consent, ethical dilemmas
Prevention/Screening Immunizations, cancer screening, health maintenance
EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
Q1
A 52-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and fatigue.
His random glucose is 230 mg/dL and HbA1c is 8.2%. First-line management should
include:
A. Initiate insulin therapy immediately
B. Start metformin and lifestyle modification
C. Refer for bariatric surgery
D. Start DPP-4 inhibitor
Answer: B
Rationale: Metformin + lifestyle changes are first-line for newly diagnosed type 2
diabetes unless contraindicated. Metformin reduces hepatic glucose production and
improves insulin sensitivity. Lifestyle modifications including dietary changes and
exercise are essential components of initial management .
Q2
A 68-year-old with COPD and chronic hypoxia should have oxygen target saturation of:
A. ≥ 99%
B. 95–99%
C. 88–92%
D. 80–85%
, Answer: C
Rationale: COPD patients with chronic hypercapnia risk suppressing respiratory drive if
over-oxygenated; 88–92% target is safe. This lower target prevents the loss of hypoxic
drive that some COPD patients rely on for respiratory stimulation .
Q3
A 25-year-old with acute asthma exacerbation has wheezing, tachypnea, and O₂ sat
89%. Best initial treatment is:
A. Intravenous magnesium sulfate
B. Inhaled short-acting beta-agonist
C. Oral corticosteroids only
D. Nebulized anticholinergic only
Answer: B
Rationale: Inhaled SABA (short-acting beta-agonist) is first-line to relieve
bronchospasm; add systemic corticosteroids if needed. The SABA provides rapid
bronchodilation, which is the priority intervention in acute asthma .
Q4
A 45-year-old with hypertension and diabetes has microalbuminuria. The best
medication to reduce progression of renal disease is:
A. Beta-blocker
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Calcium channel blocker
D. Diuretic only
Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce intraglomerular pressure and slow diabetic
nephropathy progression. They also provide cardiovascular protection and are first-line
for hypertensive patients with diabetes and albuminuria .
