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NR 601: PRIMARY CARE OF THE MATURING & AGED FAMILY MIDTERM 2026/2027 | 100% VERIFIED EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | LATEST UPDATED (PASS GUARANTEE)

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NR 601: PRIMARY CARE OF THE MATURING & AGED FAMILY MIDTERM 2026/2027 | 100% VERIFIED EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | LATEST UPDATED (PASS GUARANTEE)

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NR 601: PRIMARY CARE OF THE MATURING & AGED FAMILY
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NR 601: PRIMARY CARE OF THE MATURING & AGED FAMILY

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NR 601: PRIMARY CARE OF THE MATURING & AGED FAMILY MIDTERM
2026/2027 | 100% VERIFIED EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS | LATEST UPDATED (PASS GUARANTEE)




Q1 Which tool is the GOLD STANDARD for assessing functional status in older adults?


ANSWER: The Barthel Index assesses basic ADLs (Activities of Daily Living) such as bathing, dressing,
toileting, continence, feeding, transfers, and mobility. A score of 100 indicates full independence.



Q2 What does the Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment (CGA) evaluate?


ANSWER: The CGA evaluates medical conditions, functional status (ADLs/IADLs), cognitive status,
psychological status, social support, nutritional status, polypharmacy, and environmental factors.



Q3 A 78-year-old patient scores 24/30 on the MMSE. How would you interpret this score?


ANSWER: A score of 24–30 on the MMSE is considered normal cognition. Mild cognitive impairment is
suggested by scores 18–23, moderate by 10–17, and severe by less than 10.



Q4 What IADLs are assessed using the Lawton-Brody scale?


ANSWER: The Lawton-Brody scale assesses: ability to use telephone, shopping, food preparation,
housekeeping, laundry, transportation, medication management, and ability to handle finances.



Q5 Which screening tool is used to assess for depression in older adults in primary care?


ANSWER: The Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS), available in 15-item or 30-item formats, is widely used. The
PHQ-9 is also validated for older adults. A GDS-15 score ≥5 suggests depression.

, Q6 What is the purpose of the Timed Up and Go (TUG) test?


ANSWER: The TUG test measures mobility and fall risk. The patient rises from a chair, walks 3 meters, turns,
returns, and sits. Greater than 12 seconds indicates increased fall risk in community-dwelling older adults.



Q7 What does the Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA) assess, and what is its advantage
over the MMSE?


ANSWER: MoCA assesses visuospatial ability, naming, memory, attention, language, abstraction, and
orientation. It is more sensitive for detecting mild cognitive impairment (MCI) than the MMSE. Normal score
≥26/30.



Q8 Define 'frailty' and name the five Fried criteria for its assessment.


ANSWER: Frailty is a state of increased vulnerability to stressors. Fried criteria: (1) unintentional weight loss,
(2) self-reported exhaustion, (3) weakness (grip strength), (4) slow walking speed, (5) low physical activity. 3
or more criteria = frail.



Q9 What is the Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA) used for?


ANSWER: The MNA screens for malnutrition risk in older adults. It evaluates appetite, weight loss, mobility,
psychological stress, BMI, and dietary intake. Score less than 17 indicates malnutrition; 17–23.5 indicates risk.



Q10 What is the Clock Drawing Test used for in geriatric assessment?


ANSWER: The Clock Drawing Test screens for cognitive impairment, particularly executive function and
visuospatial ability. Patients draw a clock face set to 10 past 11. Errors suggest dementia or frontal lobe
dysfunction.



Q11 What is the 'geriatric 5Ms' framework?


ANSWER: The 5Ms framework: (1) Mind (cognitive/psychiatric), (2) Mobility (gait, falls, function), (3)
Medications (polypharmacy, Beers), (4) Multi-complexity (comorbidities, biopsychosocial), (5) Matters most
(patient goals, care preferences, advance care planning).



Q12 What are 'geriatric syndromes' and list the major ones?


ANSWER: Geriatric syndromes are multifactorial clinical conditions highly prevalent in older adults not fitting
single disease categories. Major syndromes: falls, delirium, dementia, incontinence, depression, malnutrition,
sarcopenia, frailty, pressure ulcers, polypharmacy, and sleep disorders.

, Q13 What is the '4Ms' framework in the Age-Friendly Health Systems initiative?


ANSWER: Age-Friendly Health Systems 4Ms: (1) What Matters – know and align care with patient's goals; (2)
Medication – use only when indicated, minimize harm; (3) Mentation – prevent/identify/treat dementia,
depression, delirium; (4) Mobility – maintain safe mobility and function.



Q14 What is multimorbidity and its impact on older adults?


ANSWER: Multimorbidity: two or more chronic conditions simultaneously. Affects more than 60% of older
adults. Increases complexity of management, medication burden, risk of drug interactions, hospitalizations,
functional decline, and caregiver burden. Requires patient-centered, goal-directed care.



Q15 What is the Katz Index of Independence in ADLs?


ANSWER: Katz Index assesses 6 basic ADLs: Bathing, Dressing, Toileting, Transferring, Continence,
Feeding. Each scored 0 (dependent) or 1 (independent). Maximum score 6 = fully independent; 0 = fully
dependent. Simple, widely used in geriatric assessment.




DEMENTIA


Q16 What is the most common cause of dementia in older adults?


ANSWER: Alzheimer's disease accounts for 60–80% of dementia cases. It is characterized by progressive
memory loss, language impairment, disorientation, and eventually loss of ADL function.



Q17 What are the key features that distinguish Lewy Body Dementia (LBD) from Alzheimer's
disease?


ANSWER: LBD features: (1) fluctuating cognition, (2) recurrent visual hallucinations, (3) parkinsonism, (4)
REM sleep behavior disorder. Hypersensitivity to antipsychotics is a hallmark. Contrast with Alzheimer's
gradual memory decline.



Q18 What medications are FDA-approved for Alzheimer's disease treatment?


ANSWER: Cholinesterase inhibitors: donepezil (all stages), rivastigmine, galantamine (mild-moderate).
NMDA antagonist: memantine (moderate-severe). Combination therapy is used in moderate-severe disease.

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