MSRA FINAL EXAM STUDY GUIDE
2026 2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS || ALREADY GRADED A+
<NEWEST VERSION>
1. Bulls-eye rash in Lymes - ANSWER Erythema Migrans
2. Bacterial cause for Lymes? - ANSWER Borrelia Burgdorferi
3. Sweets syndrome - ANSWER Febrile neutrophilic dermatosis - tender
plaques, fever, neutrophilia. Associated with malignancy
4. Necrobiosis lipiodica - ANSWER Cutaneous manifestation of DM -
yellow/brown atrophic plaques with telangetasia. On anterior shin.
5. Granuloma annulare - ANSWER Flesh coloured/erythematous ring shaped
lesions associated with DM
6. Vitiligo - ANSWER Hypopigmentation due to destruction of melanocytes.
Associated with autoimmune conditions (T1DM)
7. Lipoatrophy - ANSWER Complication of DM due to insulin. Loss of
subcutaneous fat at injection sites.
8. TB abx - ANSWER Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, Ethambutol.
9. Common complication of isoniazid theory - ANSWER Peripheral
neuropathy due to B6 (pyridoxin) deficiency
10.HBsAg - ANSWER Active infection - acute in first 6 months, chronic if
>6months.
,11.HBcAg - ANSWER Positive in active infection
12.Anti-HBs IgM - ANSWER Recent exposure within last 6 months
13.Anti-HBs IgG - ANSWER Positive = immunity/cleared disease. Not present
in chronic disease.
14.Anti-HBc IgG - ANSWER Only present if infected rather than immunised.
15.Scoring system used to assess inpatient vs outpatient management for UGIB
- ANSWER Blatchford
16.Scoring system used after endoscopy to consider rebleeding or mortality -
ANSWER Rockall
17.Management of proximal pole scaphoid fracture - ANSWER Surgical
management
18.HPV serotypes associated with cervical cancer - ANSWER 16, 18, 33 - by
affecting oncogene E6 and E7
19.When to refer molluscum contagiosum? - ANSWER HIV, eyelids, genital
infection as potential for further STIs
20.BRCA2 increases risk for which cancers? - ANSWER Breast and prostate
21.What is the incubation period for bacillus cereus and staph aureus in
gastroenteritis? - ANSWER 1-6 hours
22.What is the incubation period for salmonella and e coli in gastroenteritis? -
ANSWER 12-48 hours
23.What is the incubation period for shigella and campylobacter in
gastroenteritis? - ANSWER 48-72 hours
24.What is the incubation period for giardiasis and amoebiasis in
gastroenteritis? - ANSWER >7 days
25.Target HbA1c if on a single oral anti diabetic drug? - ANSWER 48
,26.Target Hba1c of on two oral anti diabetic medications or if risk of
hypoglycaemia? - ANSWER 53
27.Management for a strawberry nevus if at risk of complications? - ANSWER
Propranolol
28.Side effects of methotrexate? - ANSWER Myelosuppression, liver cirrhosis,
pulmonary fibrosis
29.Side effects of sulfasalazine? - ANSWER Rashes, oligospermia, Heinz body
anaemia, interstitial lung disease.
30.Side effects of leflunomide? - ANSWER Liver impairment, interstitial lung
disease, hypertension
31.Side effects of hydroxychloroquine? - ANSWER Retinopathy, corneal
deposits
32.Side effects of gold? - ANSWER Proteinuria
33.Topiramate - ANSWER another antiepileptic medication that can cause side
effects like weight loss, cognitive impairment, and kidney stones
34.Sodium valproate - ANSWER an antiepileptic drug that can cause
gastrointestinal disturbances, tremor, and hair loss
35.Lamotrigine - ANSWER an antiepileptic medication known for causing skin
rashes (including Stevens-Johnson syndrome), headache and dizziness
36.Phenytoin - ANSWER Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that can cause side
effects such as peripheral neuropathy, characterized by numbness and
reduced sensation in a glove-and-stocking distribution. Additionally,
phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, which may lead to bleeding gums.
37.Ottawa Rules for ankle x-rays - ANSWER An ankle x-ray is required only if
there is any pain in the malleolar zone and any one of the following findings:
bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone (from the tip of the lateral
malleolus to include the lower 6 cm of posterior border of the fibular)
bony tenderness at the medial malleolar zone (from the tip of the medial
malleolus to the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the tibia)
, -inability to walk four weight-bearing steps immediately after the injury and
in the emergency department
38.Cushing's triad - ANSWER Bradycardia and hypertension with a wide pulse
pressure is the correct answer.
39.Prostaglandin analogues (e.g. latanoprost) used OD - ANSWER Increases
uveoscleral outflow. Adverse effects include brown pigmentation of the iris,
increased eyelash length
40.Beta-blockers (e.g. timolol, betaxolol) - ANSWER Reduces aqueous
production. Should be avoided in asthmatics and patients with heart block.
41.Sympathomimetics (e.g. brimonidine, an alpha2-adrenoceptor agonist) -
ANSWER Reduces aqueous production and increases outflow. Avoid if
taking MAOI or tricyclic antidepressantsAdverse effects include
hyperaemia.
42.Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (e.g. Dorzolamide) - ANSWER Reduces
aqueous production. Systemic absorption may cause sulphonamide-like
reactions.
43.Miotics (e.g. pilocarpine, a muscarinic receptor agonist) - ANSWER
Increases uveoscleral outflow. Adverse effects included a constricted pupil,
headache and blurred vision
44.Propofol - ANSWER Potentiates GABA, Hypotension, Very common
induction agent for general anaesthesia and also used extensively in
intensive care for ventilated patients• Has some anti-emetic effects - useful
for patients with a high risk of post-operative vomiting
45.Thiopental - ANSWER A type of barbiturate (potentiates GABA),
Laryngospasm. Highly lipid-soluble so quickly affects the brain
46.Etomidate - ANSWER Potentiates GABAA. Primary adrenal suppression
(secondary to reversibly inhibiting 11β-hydroxylase)• Myoclonus. Causes
less hypotension than propofol and thiopental during induction and is
therefore often used in cases of haemodynamic instability
2026 2027 COMPLETE QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS || ALREADY GRADED A+
<NEWEST VERSION>
1. Bulls-eye rash in Lymes - ANSWER Erythema Migrans
2. Bacterial cause for Lymes? - ANSWER Borrelia Burgdorferi
3. Sweets syndrome - ANSWER Febrile neutrophilic dermatosis - tender
plaques, fever, neutrophilia. Associated with malignancy
4. Necrobiosis lipiodica - ANSWER Cutaneous manifestation of DM -
yellow/brown atrophic plaques with telangetasia. On anterior shin.
5. Granuloma annulare - ANSWER Flesh coloured/erythematous ring shaped
lesions associated with DM
6. Vitiligo - ANSWER Hypopigmentation due to destruction of melanocytes.
Associated with autoimmune conditions (T1DM)
7. Lipoatrophy - ANSWER Complication of DM due to insulin. Loss of
subcutaneous fat at injection sites.
8. TB abx - ANSWER Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, Ethambutol.
9. Common complication of isoniazid theory - ANSWER Peripheral
neuropathy due to B6 (pyridoxin) deficiency
10.HBsAg - ANSWER Active infection - acute in first 6 months, chronic if
>6months.
,11.HBcAg - ANSWER Positive in active infection
12.Anti-HBs IgM - ANSWER Recent exposure within last 6 months
13.Anti-HBs IgG - ANSWER Positive = immunity/cleared disease. Not present
in chronic disease.
14.Anti-HBc IgG - ANSWER Only present if infected rather than immunised.
15.Scoring system used to assess inpatient vs outpatient management for UGIB
- ANSWER Blatchford
16.Scoring system used after endoscopy to consider rebleeding or mortality -
ANSWER Rockall
17.Management of proximal pole scaphoid fracture - ANSWER Surgical
management
18.HPV serotypes associated with cervical cancer - ANSWER 16, 18, 33 - by
affecting oncogene E6 and E7
19.When to refer molluscum contagiosum? - ANSWER HIV, eyelids, genital
infection as potential for further STIs
20.BRCA2 increases risk for which cancers? - ANSWER Breast and prostate
21.What is the incubation period for bacillus cereus and staph aureus in
gastroenteritis? - ANSWER 1-6 hours
22.What is the incubation period for salmonella and e coli in gastroenteritis? -
ANSWER 12-48 hours
23.What is the incubation period for shigella and campylobacter in
gastroenteritis? - ANSWER 48-72 hours
24.What is the incubation period for giardiasis and amoebiasis in
gastroenteritis? - ANSWER >7 days
25.Target HbA1c if on a single oral anti diabetic drug? - ANSWER 48
,26.Target Hba1c of on two oral anti diabetic medications or if risk of
hypoglycaemia? - ANSWER 53
27.Management for a strawberry nevus if at risk of complications? - ANSWER
Propranolol
28.Side effects of methotrexate? - ANSWER Myelosuppression, liver cirrhosis,
pulmonary fibrosis
29.Side effects of sulfasalazine? - ANSWER Rashes, oligospermia, Heinz body
anaemia, interstitial lung disease.
30.Side effects of leflunomide? - ANSWER Liver impairment, interstitial lung
disease, hypertension
31.Side effects of hydroxychloroquine? - ANSWER Retinopathy, corneal
deposits
32.Side effects of gold? - ANSWER Proteinuria
33.Topiramate - ANSWER another antiepileptic medication that can cause side
effects like weight loss, cognitive impairment, and kidney stones
34.Sodium valproate - ANSWER an antiepileptic drug that can cause
gastrointestinal disturbances, tremor, and hair loss
35.Lamotrigine - ANSWER an antiepileptic medication known for causing skin
rashes (including Stevens-Johnson syndrome), headache and dizziness
36.Phenytoin - ANSWER Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug that can cause side
effects such as peripheral neuropathy, characterized by numbness and
reduced sensation in a glove-and-stocking distribution. Additionally,
phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, which may lead to bleeding gums.
37.Ottawa Rules for ankle x-rays - ANSWER An ankle x-ray is required only if
there is any pain in the malleolar zone and any one of the following findings:
bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone (from the tip of the lateral
malleolus to include the lower 6 cm of posterior border of the fibular)
bony tenderness at the medial malleolar zone (from the tip of the medial
malleolus to the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the tibia)
, -inability to walk four weight-bearing steps immediately after the injury and
in the emergency department
38.Cushing's triad - ANSWER Bradycardia and hypertension with a wide pulse
pressure is the correct answer.
39.Prostaglandin analogues (e.g. latanoprost) used OD - ANSWER Increases
uveoscleral outflow. Adverse effects include brown pigmentation of the iris,
increased eyelash length
40.Beta-blockers (e.g. timolol, betaxolol) - ANSWER Reduces aqueous
production. Should be avoided in asthmatics and patients with heart block.
41.Sympathomimetics (e.g. brimonidine, an alpha2-adrenoceptor agonist) -
ANSWER Reduces aqueous production and increases outflow. Avoid if
taking MAOI or tricyclic antidepressantsAdverse effects include
hyperaemia.
42.Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (e.g. Dorzolamide) - ANSWER Reduces
aqueous production. Systemic absorption may cause sulphonamide-like
reactions.
43.Miotics (e.g. pilocarpine, a muscarinic receptor agonist) - ANSWER
Increases uveoscleral outflow. Adverse effects included a constricted pupil,
headache and blurred vision
44.Propofol - ANSWER Potentiates GABA, Hypotension, Very common
induction agent for general anaesthesia and also used extensively in
intensive care for ventilated patients• Has some anti-emetic effects - useful
for patients with a high risk of post-operative vomiting
45.Thiopental - ANSWER A type of barbiturate (potentiates GABA),
Laryngospasm. Highly lipid-soluble so quickly affects the brain
46.Etomidate - ANSWER Potentiates GABAA. Primary adrenal suppression
(secondary to reversibly inhibiting 11β-hydroxylase)• Myoclonus. Causes
less hypotension than propofol and thiopental during induction and is
therefore often used in cases of haemodynamic instability
