ATI RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXAM / NGN RN ATI COMPREHENSIVE
PREDICTOR FORM A, B & C EACH FORM CONTAINS COMPLETE ACTUAL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED SOLUTIONS WITH RATIONALES (100% CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS) CURRENTLY UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED PASS A+
(BRAND NEW!) FULL REVISED EXAM 2026
ATI RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR FORM A
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings
indicates a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A) Flushing and urticarial
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Low back pain and hypotension**
C) Wheezing and stridor
D) Fever and chills occurring 4 hours after transfusion
Rationale: Hemolytic reactions occur due to ABO incompatibility, causing low back pain, hypotension,
tachycardia, and hemoglobinuria. Urticarial indicates allergic reaction; wheezing suggests
anaphylaxis; fever hours later are febrile reaction.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who has been taking phenalgine. Which of
the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A) Broiled chicken
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Aged cheddar cheese**
C) Apples
D) White rice
Rationale: Phenalgine is an MAOI; tyramine-rich foods like aged cheese can cause hypertensive crisis.
Chicken, apples, and rice are low in tyramine.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following
findings should prompt the nurse to withhold the medication?
A) Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
B) Heart rate 58 beats per minute
,C) **CORRECT ANSWER: Heart rate 52 beats per minute**
D) Respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute
Rationale: Digoxin is withheld for heart rate below 60 bpm in adults (or below 70 in
children/neonates). A rate of 52 bpm indicates bradycardia and risk of digoxin toxicity.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the
following statements by the client indicates understanding?
A) "I will take ibuprofen if I have a headache."
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: "I will eat the same amount of green leafy vegetables each week."**
C) "I will check my INR every month."
D) "I will stop warfarin if I see bruising."
Rationale: Consistent vitamin K intake (green leafy vegetables) maintains therapeutic INR. Ibuprofen
increases bleeding risk; INR monitoring is frequent (weekly initially); stopping warfarin without
provider guidance is dangerous.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours’ post–cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery. Which
of the following findings requires immediate intervention?
A) Heart rate 88/min
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Pallor and coolness of the affected foot**
C) Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
D) Small amount of serous drainage at insertion site
Rationale: Pallor and coolness indicate arterial occlusion or thromboembolism, a limb-threatening
complication. Other findings are expected or minor.
6. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor. The fetal heart rate shows late decelerations. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Administer oxygen via face mask
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Reposition the client to left lateral**
C) Increase IV fluids
D) Notify the provider
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. First action is repositioning to left
lateral to improve placental perfusion, then oxygen, IV fluids, and notification.
,7. A nurse is teaching a client with asthma about using a peak flow meter. Which of the following
statements by the client indicates an understanding?
A) "I will use my peak flow meter after taking my rescue inhaler."
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: "I will record the best of three attempts."**
C) "I will perform the test while lying down."
D) "I will use the meter only when I feel short of breath."
Rationale: Best of three attempts provides accurate measurement. Peak flow is done before
medication (to assess need) and sitting/standing, not lying; daily use is recommended.
8. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving gentamicin. Which of the following values
indicates an adverse effect of the medication?
A) Serum potassium 4.0 me/L
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/ld.**
C) Hemoglobin 14 g/ld.
D) White blood cell count 8,000/mm³
Rationale: Gentamicin is nephrotoxic; elevated creatinine (>1.3 mg/ld.) suggests kidney injury. Normal
potassium, hemoglobin, WBC are expected.
9. A nurse is providing postmortem care for a client who died following a cardiac arrest. Which of the
following actions is appropriate?
A) Remove all indwelling tubes before family viewing
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Place dentures in the mouth to maintain facial shape**
C) Position the client flat with arms crossed
D) Clean the body using a full bed bath
Rationale: Dentures are replaced to preserve facial contour for viewing. Tubes may be left in place
unless family requests removal; positioning is supine with arms at sides; full bath is not necessary—
only soiled areas cleaned.
10. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings is most
indicative?
A) Rebound tenderness at Burney’s point
, B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Pain migrating from periumbilical to right lower quadrant**
C) Constipation for 3 days
D) Positive Kerning sign
Rationale: Classic appendicitis pain starts periumbilical and shifts to RLQ. Rebound tenderness may be
present but is less specific; Kerning sign is for meningitis.
11. A nurse is teaching a client about self–administration of insulin. Which of the following actions
demonstrates correct technique?
A) Injecting insulin into the deltoid muscle
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Rotating injection sites within the same anatomical region**
C) Using the same needle for a week to reduce waste
D) Massaging the injection site after administration
Rationale: Rotation within one region (e.g., abdomen) prevents lipodystrophy. Insulin is SQ, not IM;
needles are single–use; massaging can alter absorption.
12. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which of the following
findings requires immediate action?
A) Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Sudden cessation of tiddling in the water seal chamber**
C) 100 mL of drainage in the first 2 hours
D) Mild crepitus around the insertion site
Rationale: Cessation of tiddling indicates obstruction or lung re–expansion (but sudden stop may
mean blockage); continuous bubbling in suction chamber is expected; drainage up to 100 mL/hr. is
acceptable; crepitus is common.
13. A nurse is evaluating a client’s understanding of a low–sodium diet. Which of the following meal
choices indicates the client needs further teaching?
A) Baked chicken with steamed rice and green beans
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Ham sandwich with pickles and potato chips**
C) Grilled fish with boiled potatoes and carrots
D) Oatmeal with fresh blueberries
PREDICTOR FORM A, B & C EACH FORM CONTAINS COMPLETE ACTUAL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED SOLUTIONS WITH RATIONALES (100% CORRECT VERIFIED
ANSWERS) CURRENTLY UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED PASS A+
(BRAND NEW!) FULL REVISED EXAM 2026
ATI RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR FORM A
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of the following findings
indicates a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A) Flushing and urticarial
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Low back pain and hypotension**
C) Wheezing and stridor
D) Fever and chills occurring 4 hours after transfusion
Rationale: Hemolytic reactions occur due to ABO incompatibility, causing low back pain, hypotension,
tachycardia, and hemoglobinuria. Urticarial indicates allergic reaction; wheezing suggests
anaphylaxis; fever hours later are febrile reaction.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who has been taking phenalgine. Which of
the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A) Broiled chicken
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Aged cheddar cheese**
C) Apples
D) White rice
Rationale: Phenalgine is an MAOI; tyramine-rich foods like aged cheese can cause hypertensive crisis.
Chicken, apples, and rice are low in tyramine.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following
findings should prompt the nurse to withhold the medication?
A) Blood pressure 118/76 mm Hg
B) Heart rate 58 beats per minute
,C) **CORRECT ANSWER: Heart rate 52 beats per minute**
D) Respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute
Rationale: Digoxin is withheld for heart rate below 60 bpm in adults (or below 70 in
children/neonates). A rate of 52 bpm indicates bradycardia and risk of digoxin toxicity.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the
following statements by the client indicates understanding?
A) "I will take ibuprofen if I have a headache."
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: "I will eat the same amount of green leafy vegetables each week."**
C) "I will check my INR every month."
D) "I will stop warfarin if I see bruising."
Rationale: Consistent vitamin K intake (green leafy vegetables) maintains therapeutic INR. Ibuprofen
increases bleeding risk; INR monitoring is frequent (weekly initially); stopping warfarin without
provider guidance is dangerous.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours’ post–cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery. Which
of the following findings requires immediate intervention?
A) Heart rate 88/min
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Pallor and coolness of the affected foot**
C) Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
D) Small amount of serous drainage at insertion site
Rationale: Pallor and coolness indicate arterial occlusion or thromboembolism, a limb-threatening
complication. Other findings are expected or minor.
6. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor. The fetal heart rate shows late decelerations. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Administer oxygen via face mask
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Reposition the client to left lateral**
C) Increase IV fluids
D) Notify the provider
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. First action is repositioning to left
lateral to improve placental perfusion, then oxygen, IV fluids, and notification.
,7. A nurse is teaching a client with asthma about using a peak flow meter. Which of the following
statements by the client indicates an understanding?
A) "I will use my peak flow meter after taking my rescue inhaler."
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: "I will record the best of three attempts."**
C) "I will perform the test while lying down."
D) "I will use the meter only when I feel short of breath."
Rationale: Best of three attempts provides accurate measurement. Peak flow is done before
medication (to assess need) and sitting/standing, not lying; daily use is recommended.
8. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving gentamicin. Which of the following values
indicates an adverse effect of the medication?
A) Serum potassium 4.0 me/L
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/ld.**
C) Hemoglobin 14 g/ld.
D) White blood cell count 8,000/mm³
Rationale: Gentamicin is nephrotoxic; elevated creatinine (>1.3 mg/ld.) suggests kidney injury. Normal
potassium, hemoglobin, WBC are expected.
9. A nurse is providing postmortem care for a client who died following a cardiac arrest. Which of the
following actions is appropriate?
A) Remove all indwelling tubes before family viewing
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Place dentures in the mouth to maintain facial shape**
C) Position the client flat with arms crossed
D) Clean the body using a full bed bath
Rationale: Dentures are replaced to preserve facial contour for viewing. Tubes may be left in place
unless family requests removal; positioning is supine with arms at sides; full bath is not necessary—
only soiled areas cleaned.
10. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings is most
indicative?
A) Rebound tenderness at Burney’s point
, B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Pain migrating from periumbilical to right lower quadrant**
C) Constipation for 3 days
D) Positive Kerning sign
Rationale: Classic appendicitis pain starts periumbilical and shifts to RLQ. Rebound tenderness may be
present but is less specific; Kerning sign is for meningitis.
11. A nurse is teaching a client about self–administration of insulin. Which of the following actions
demonstrates correct technique?
A) Injecting insulin into the deltoid muscle
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Rotating injection sites within the same anatomical region**
C) Using the same needle for a week to reduce waste
D) Massaging the injection site after administration
Rationale: Rotation within one region (e.g., abdomen) prevents lipodystrophy. Insulin is SQ, not IM;
needles are single–use; massaging can alter absorption.
12. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a thoracotomy. Which of the following
findings requires immediate action?
A) Continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Sudden cessation of tiddling in the water seal chamber**
C) 100 mL of drainage in the first 2 hours
D) Mild crepitus around the insertion site
Rationale: Cessation of tiddling indicates obstruction or lung re–expansion (but sudden stop may
mean blockage); continuous bubbling in suction chamber is expected; drainage up to 100 mL/hr. is
acceptable; crepitus is common.
13. A nurse is evaluating a client’s understanding of a low–sodium diet. Which of the following meal
choices indicates the client needs further teaching?
A) Baked chicken with steamed rice and green beans
B) **CORRECT ANSWER: Ham sandwich with pickles and potato chips**
C) Grilled fish with boiled potatoes and carrots
D) Oatmeal with fresh blueberries
