BSN HESI 315 Pharmacology Practice Exam Version 1 (New 2026/ 2027 Update) Questions and Verified Answers|100% Correct| Grade A-Nightingale

BSN HESI 315 Pharmacology Practice Exam Version 1 (New 2026/ 2027 Update) Questions and Verified Answers|100% Correct| Grade A-Nightingale Q. A client with osteoarthritis receives a new prescription for celecoxib orally for symptom management. The nurse notes the client is allergic to sulfa. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement prior to administering the first dose? a) Review the client's hemoglobin results. b) Notify the healthcare provider. c) Inquire about the reaction to sulfa. d) Record the client's vital signs. ANSWER b) Notify the healthcare provider. Q. The nurse is making early morning rounds on a group of clients when a client begins exhibiting symptoms of an acute asthma attack. The nurse administers a PRN prescription for a Beta 2 receptor agonist agent. Which client response should the nurse expect? a) Tachycardia b) Increased blood pressure c) Rapid resolution of wheezing d) Improved pulse oximetry values e) Reduced fever and airway inflammation ANSWER a) Tachycardia c) Rapid resolution of wheezing d) Improved pulse oximetry values Q. Which change in data indicates to the nurse that the desired effect of the angiotensin II receptor antagonist valsartan has been achieved? a) Dependent edema reduced from +3 to +1 b) Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55 mg/dl c) Pulse rate reduced from 150 to 90 beats/minute d) Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130/80 mmHg ANSWER d) Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130/80 mmHg Q. The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of high-dose aspirin therapy for an 88-year-old client with arthritis. The client reports that she can't hear the nurse's questions because her ears are ringing. Which action should the nurse implement? a) Refer the client to an audiologist for evaluation of her hearing. b) Advise the client that this is a common side effect of aspirin therapy. c) Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately. d) Ask the client to turn off her hearing aid during the exam. ANSWER c) Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately. Q. The nitrate isosorbide dinitrate is prescribed for a client with angina. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching plan? a) Quit taking the medication if dizziness occurs. b) Do not get up quickly. Always rise slowly. c) Take the medication with food only. d) Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods. ANSWER b) Do not get up quickly. Always rise slowly. Q. Which medications should the nurse caution the client about taking while receiving an opioid analgesic? a) Antacids b) Benzodiazepines c) Antihypertensives d) Oral antidiabetics ANSWER b) Benzodiazepines Q. A client who has been taking levodopa PO TID to control the symptoms of Parkinson's disease has a new prescription for sustained-release levodopa/carbidopa PO BID. The client took his levodopa at 0800. Which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client? a) "Take the first dose of levodopa-carbidopa today, as soon as your prescription is filled." b) "Since you already took your levodopa, wait until tomorrow to take the levodopa-carbidopa." c) "Take both drugs for the first week, then switch to only the levodopa-carbidopa." d) "You can begin taking the levodopa-carbidopa this evening, but do not take any more levodopa." ANSWER d) "You can begin taking the levodopa-carbidopa this evening, but do not take any more levodopa." Q. An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch to prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client? a) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure. b) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise. c) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull. d) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise. ANSWER a) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure. Q. The nurse is assessing a client prior to administering the prescribed dose of atenolol PO. The client's blood pressure is 120/68 mmHg, and the telemetry monitor shows sinus bradycardia with a rate of 58 beats/minute, and a P-R interval of 0.24. Based on this assessment, what intervention should the nurse implement? a) Lower the head of the bed and assess the client for orthostatic vital sign changes. b) Give the medication as prescribed and continue to monitor the client. c) Prepare to administer atropine sulfate IVP. d) Hold the prescribed dose and contact the healthcare provider. ANSWER b) Give the medication as prescribed and continue to monitor the client. Q. When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen, it is most important for the nurse to assess for pain in which area of the body? a) Flank b) Abdomen c) Chest d) Head ANSWER b) Abdomen Q. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide to the client about diet modifications? a) Do not add salt to foods during preparation. b) Refrain from eating foods high in potassium. c) Restrict fluid intake to 1000 ml per day. d) Increase intake of milk and milk products. ANSWER b) Refrain from eating foods high in potassium. Q. Which method of medication administration provides the client with the greatest first-pass effect? a) Oral b) Sublingual c) Intravenous d) Subcutaneous ANSWER a) Oral Q. Which nursing diagnosis is important to include in the plan of care for a client receiving the angiotensin-2 receptor antagonist irbesartan? a) Fluid volume deficit b) Risk for infection c) Risk for injury d) Impaired sleep patterns ANSWER c) Risk for injury Q. Upon admission to the emergency center, an adult client with acute status asthmaticus is prescribed this series of medications. In which order should the nurse administer the prescribed medications? (Arrange from first to last.) a) Prednisone orally b) Gentamicin IM c) Albuterol puffs d) Salmeterol c) Albuterol puffs d) Salmeterol ANSWER a) Prednisone orally b) Gentamicin IM Q. A client asks the nurse if glipizide is an oral insulin. Which response should the nurse provide? a) "Yes, it is an oral insulin and has the same actions and properties as intermediate insulin." b) "Yes, it is an oral insulin and is distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the same manner as insulin." c) "No, it is not an oral insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is present." d) "No, it is not an oral insulin, but it is effective for those who are resistant to injectable insulins." ANSWER c) "No, it is not an oral insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is present. Q. The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an insect sting. Which prescription should the nurse prepare to administer to this client? a) Dopamine b) Ephedrine c) Epinephrine d) Diphenhydramine ANSWER c) Epinephrine Q. A postoperative client has been receiving a continuous IV infusion of meperidine 35 mg/hr for four days. The client has a PRN prescription for meperidine 100 mg PO every 3 hours. The nurse notes that the client has become increasingly restless, irritable, and confused, stating that there are bugs all over the walls. Which action should the nurse take first? a) Administer a PRN dose of the PO meperidine. b) Administer naloxone IV per PRN protocol. c) Decrease the IV infusion rate of the meperidine per protocol. d) Notify the healthcare provider of the client's confusion and hallucinations. ANSWER c) Decrease the IV infusion rate of the meperidine per protocol. Q. A client who was prescribed atorvastatin one month ago calls the triage nurse at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which statement reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide to this client? a) Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels can cause muscle spasms. b) Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to assess hyponatremia, a cause of cramping. c) Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an indication of a serious side effect. d) Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance the effectiveness of the drug. ANSWER c) Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be an indication of a serious side effect. Q. A client with heart failure (HF) is being discharged with a new prescription for the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor captopril. The nurse's discharge instructions should include reporting which problem to the healthcare provider? a) Weight loss. b) Dizziness. c) Muscle cramps. d) Dry mucous membranes. ANSWER b) Dizziness. Q. Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release oxycodone prescription? a) As needed. b) Every 12 hours. c) Every 24 hours. d) Every 4 to 6 hours. ANSWER b) Every 12 hours. Q. A client with dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide in 4 divided doses over the next 24 hours. Which dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement? a) Every 6 hours. b) QID. c) AC and bedtime. d) PC and bedtime. ANSWER a) Every 6 hours. Q. Which symptoms are serious adverse effects of beta-adrenergic blockers such as propranolol? a) Headache, hypertension, and blurred vision. b) Wheezing, hypotension, and AV block. c) Vomiting, dilated pupils, and papilledema. d) Tinnitus, muscle weakness, and tachypnea. ANSWER b) Wheezing, hypotension, and AV block. Which antidiarrheal agent should be used with caution in clients taking high dosages of aspirin for arthritis? a) Loperamide. b) Probantheline. c) Bismuth subsalicylate. d) Diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine. c) Bismuth subsalicylate. The nurse is reviewing the use of the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with a client in the immediate postoperative period. The client will receive morphine 1 mg IV per hour basal rate with 1 mg IV every 15 minutes per PCA to a total of 5 mg IV maximally per hour. Which assessment has the highest priority before initiating the PCA pump? a) The expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump. b) The rate and depth of the client's respirations. c) The type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure. d) The client's subjective and objective signs of pain. b) The rate and depth of the client's respirations. In evaluating the effects of lactulose, which outcome would indicate that the drug is performing as intended? a) An increase in urine output. b) Two or three soft stools per day. c) Watery, diarrhea stools. d) Increased serum bilirubin. b) Two or three soft stools per day. Dobutamine is an emergency drug most commonly prescribed for a client with which condition? a) Shock. b) Asthma. c) Hypotension. d) Heart failure. d) Heart failure. A client with giardiasis is taking metronidazole 2 grams PO. Which information should the nurse include in the client's instruction? a) Notify the clinic of any changes in the color of urine. b) Avoid overexposure to the sun. c) Stop the medication after the diarrhea resolves. d) Take the medication with food. d) Take the medication with food. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement prior to the administration of the antiarrhythmic drug adenosine? a) Assess pupillary response to light. b) Instruct the client that facial flushing may occur. c) Apply continuous cardiac monitoring. d) Request that family members leave the room. c) Apply continuous cardiac monitoring. Which instruction(s) should the nurse give to a female client who just received a prescription for oral metronidazole for the treatment of Trichomonas vaginalis? a) Increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice. b) Do not abruptly discontinue the medication; taper use. c) Check blood pressure daily to detect hypertension. d) Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. e) Use condoms until treatment is completed. f) Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time. a) Increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice. d) Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. e) Use condoms until treatment is completed. f) Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time. Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving the antimetabolite cytosine arabinoside for chemotherapy? a) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion. b) Assess the client for numbness and tingling of extremities. c) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations. d) Monitor the client's urine pH for increased acidity. c) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations. After abdominal surgery, a male client is prescribed low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). During the administration of the medication, the client asks the nurse why he is receiving this medication. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide? a) This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation. b) This medication enhances antibiotics to prevent infection. c) This medication dissolves any clots that develop in the legs. d) This abdominal injection assists in the healing of the abdominal wound. a) This medication is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation. A client is being treated for hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil. The nurse knows that the action of this drug is to? a) Decrease the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood. b) Increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood. c) Increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 produced by the thyroid. d) Inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland. d) Inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland. Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute anginal attack, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired effect has been achieved? a) Client states chest pain is relieved. b) Client's pulse decreases from 120 to 90. c) Client's systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90. d) Client's SaO₂ level increases from 92% to 96%. a) Client states chest pain is relieved. A client is receiving digoxin for the onset of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). Which laboratory finding should the nurse identify that places this client at risk? a) Hypokalemia. b) Hyponatremia. c) Hypercalcemia. d) Low uric acid levels. a) Hypokalemia. A client with hyperlipidemia receives a prescription for niacin. Which client teaching is most important for the nurse to provide? a) Expected duration of flushing. b) Symptoms of hyperglycemia. c) Diets that minimize GI irritation. d) Comfort measures for pruritus. a) Expected duration of flushing. A female client with rheumatoid arthritis takes ibuprofen 600 mg PO 4 times a day. To prevent gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol 100 mcg PO is prescribed. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in client teaching? a) Use contraception during intercourse. b) Ensure the misoprostol is taken on an empty stomach c) Encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation. d) Take misoprostol 30 minutes prior to ibuprofen. a) Use contraception during intercourse. A client with coronary artery disease who is taking digoxin receives a new prescription for atorvastatin. Two weeks after initiation of the prescription, the nurse assesses the client. Which finding requires the most immediate intervention? a) Heartburn. b) Headache. c) Constipation. d) Vomiting. d) Vomiting. The healthcare provider prescribes digitalis for a client diagnosed with heart failure. Which intervention should the nurse implement prior to administering the digitalis? a) Observe respiratory rate and depth. b) Assess the serum potassium level. c) Obtain the client's blood pressure. d) Monitor the serum glucose level. b) Assess the serum potassium level. While taking a nursing history, the client states, "I am allergic to penicillin." Which related allergy to another type of antiinfective agent should the nurse ask the client about when taking the nursing history? :a) Aminoglycosides b) Cephalosporins c) Sulfonamides d) Tetracyclines b) Cephalosporins Following heparin treatment for a pulmonary embolism, a client is being discharged with a prescription for warfarin. In conducting discharge teaching, the nurse advises the client to have which diagnostic test monitored regularly after discharge? a) Perfusion scan. b) Prothrombin Time (PT/INR). c) Activated partial thromboplastin (APTT). d) Serum warfarin level (SCL). b) Prothrombin Time (PT/INR) A client is receiving ampicillin sodium for a sinus infection. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the healthcare provider immediately if which symptom occurs? a) Rash. b) Nausea. c) Headache. d) Dizziness. a) Rash A client has myxedema, which results from a deficiency of thyroid hormone synthesis in adults. Which medication would be contraindicated for this client? a) Liothyronine to replace iodine b) Furosemide for relief of fluid retention. c) Phentobarbital sodium for sleep. d) Nitroglycerin for angina pain. c) Phentobarbital sodium for sleep. The nurse is transcribing a new prescription for spironolactone for a client who receives an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which action should the nurse implement? a) Verify both prescriptions with the healthcare provider. b) Report the medication interactions to the nurse manager. c) Hold the ACE inhibitor and give the new prescription. d) Transcribe and send the prescription to the pharmacy. a) Verify both prescriptions with the healthcare provider. A female client calls the clinic and talks with the nurse to inquire about a possible reaction after taking amoxicillin for 5 days. She reports having vaginal discomfort, itching, and a white discharge. The nurse should discuss which action with the client? a) Discontinue the antibiotic because original symptoms have subsided. b) Continue taking the medication until the symptoms subside. c) Consult with the healthcare provider about another treatment for this effect. d) Use an over-the-counter (OTC) vaginal wash to flush out the secretions. c) Consult with the healthcare provider about another treatment for this effect. A client receiving albuterol tablets complains of nausea every evening with her 9:00 p.m. dose. Which action can the nurse take to alleviate this side effect? a) Change the time of the dose. b) Hold the 9:00 p.m. dose. c) Administer the dose with a snack. d) Administer an antiemetic with the dose. c) Administer the dose with a snack. A client receiving doxorubicin intravenously (IV) complains of pain at the insertion site, and the nurse notes edema at the site. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? a) Assess for erythema .b) Administer the antidote. c) Apply warm compresses. d) Discontinue the IV fluids. d) Discontinue the IV fluids. A client is receiving methylprednisolone 40 mg IV daily. The nurse anticipates an increase in which laboratory value as the result of this medication? a) Serum glucose b) Serum calcium c) Red blood cells d) Serum potassium a) Serum glucose A medication that is classified as a beta-1 agonist is most commonly prescribed for a client with which condition? a) Glaucoma b) Hypertension c) Heart failure d) Asthma c) Heart failure Which drug is used as a palliative treatment for a client with tumor-induced spinal cord compression? a) Morphine sulfate b) Ibuprofen c) Amitriptyline d) Dexamethasone d) Dexamethasone In teaching a client who had a liver transplant about cyclosporine, the nurse should encourage the client to report which adverse response to the healthcare provider? a) Changes in urine color b) Presence of hand tremors c) Increasing body hirsutism d) Nausea and vomiting b) Presence of hand tremors A client has a continuous IV infusion of dopamine and an IV of sodium chloride at 50 mL/hour. The nurse notes that the client's urinary output has been 20 mL/hour for the last two hours. Which intervention should the nurse initiate? a) Stop the infusion of dopamine. b) Change the sodium chloride to a keep-open rate. c) Replace the urinary catheter. d) Notify the healthcare provider of the urinary output. d) Notify the healthcare provider of the urinary output. An antacid, calcium carbonate, is prescribed for a client with peptic ulcer disease. The nurse knows that the purpose of this medication is to? a) Decrease production of gastric secretions. b) Produce an adherent barrier over the ulcer. c) Maintain a gastric pH of 3.5 or above. d) Decrease gastric motor activity. c) Maintain a gastric pH of 3.5 or above. A client is being treated for osteoporosis with alendronate, and the nurse has completed discharge teaching regarding medication administration. Which morning schedule would indicate to the nurse that the client teaching has been effective? a) Take medication, go for a 30-minute morning walk, then eat breakfast. b) Take medication, rest in bed for 30 minutes, eat breakfast, go for a morning walk. c) Take medication with breakfast, then take a 30-minute morning walk. d) Go for a 30-minute morning walk, eat breakfast, then take medication. a) Take medication, go for a 30-minute morning walk, then eat breakfast. An adult client has prescriptions for morphine sulfate 2.5 mg IV every 6 hours and ketorolac 30 mg IV every 6 hours. Which action should the nurse implement? a) Administer both medications according to the prescription. b) Hold the ketorolac to prevent an antagonistic effect. c) Hold the morphine to prevent an additive drug interaction. d) Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the prescription. a) Administer both medications according to the prescription. A client is admitted to the hospital for diagnostic testing for possible myasthenia gravis. The nurse prepares for intravenous administration of edrophonium chloride. What is the expected outcome for this client following the administration of this pharmacologic agent? a) Progressive difficulty with swallowing. b) Decreased respiratory effort. c) Improvement in generalized fatigue. d) Decreased muscle weakness. d) Decreased muscle weakness. A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction. Which medication prescription decreases both preload and afterload? a) Nitroglycerin. b) Propranolol. c) Morphine. d) Captopril. a) Nitroglycerin. A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to teach this client? a) Use a reliable form of birth control. b) Avoid exposure to ultraviolet light. c) Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy. d) Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. a) Use a reliable form of birth control. The nurse is caring for a client who has taken atenolol for 2 years. The healthcare provider recently changed the medication to enalapril to manage the client's blood pressure. Which instruction should the nurse provide the client regarding the new medication? a) Take the medication at bedtime. b) Report presence of increased bruising. c) Check pulse before taking medication. d) Rise slowly when getting out of bed or a chair. d) Rise slowly when getting out of bed or a chair. The nurse is teaching a client with cancer about opioid management for intractable pain and tolerance-related side effects. The nurse should prepare the client on which side effect that is most likely to persist during long-term use of opioids? a) Sedation. b) Constipation. c) Urinary retention. d) Respiratory depression. b) Constipation. A client is taking hydromorphone PO every 4 hours at home. Following surgery, hydromorphone IV every 4 hours PRN and butorphanol tartrate IV every 4 hours PRN are prescribed for pain. The client received a dose of the hydromorphone IV four hours ago and is again requesting pain medication. What intervention should the nurse implement? a) Alternate the two medications every 4 hours PRN for pain. b) Alternate the two medications every 2 hours PRN for pain. c) Administer only the hydromorphone every 4 hours PRN for pain. d) Administer only the butorphanol tartrate every 4 hours PRN for pain. c) Administer only the hydromorphone every 4 hours PRN for pain. An older client with a decreased percentage of lean body mass is likely to receive a prescription that is adjusted based on which pharmacokinetic process? a) Absorption. b) Metabolism. c) Elimination. d) Distribution. d) Distribution. The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen twice daily for a client with osteoarthritis of the hands. The client tells the nurse that the drug does not seem to be effective after three weeks. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide? a) The frequency of the dosing is necessary to increase the effectiveness. b) Therapeutic blood levels of this drug are reached in 4 to 6 weeks. c) Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated. d) Systemic corticosteroids are the next drugs of choice for pain relief. c) Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated. A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. Which is the optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough level? a) Sixty minutes after the antibiotic dose is administered. b) Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given. c) When the next blood glucose level is to be checked. d) Thirty minutes before the next antibiotic dose is given. b) Immediately before the next antibiotic dose is given. The healthcare provider prescribes naloxone for a client in the emergency room. Which assessment data would indicate that the naloxone has been effective? a) Statement that the chest pain is better. b) Respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute. c) Seizure activity has stopped temporarily. d) Pupils are constricted bilaterally. b) Respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute. A client with Parkinson's disease is taking levodopa-carbidopa. Which observation by the nurse would indicate that the desired outcome of the medication is being achieved? a) Decreased blood pressure. b) Lessening of tremors. c) Increased salivation. d) Increased attention span. b) Lessening of tremors. A client is receiving clonidine 0.1 mg/24hr via transdermal patch. Which assessment finding indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved? a) Client denies recent episodes of angina. b) Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1. c) Client denies recent nausea or vomiting. d) Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70 mmHg. d) Blood pressure has changed from 180/120 to 140/70 mmHg. Which client should the nurse identify as being at highest risk for complications during the use of an opioid analgesic? a) An older client with Type 2 diabetes mellitus. b) A client with chronic rheumatoid arthritis. c) A client with an open compound fracture. d) A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease. d) A young adult with inflammatory bowel disease. A 43-year-old female client is receiving thyroid replacement hormone following a thyroidectomy. Which adverse effects associated with thyroid hormone toxicity should the nurse instruct the client to report promptly to the healthcare provider? a) Tinnitus and dizziness. b) Tachycardia and chest pain. c) Dry skin and intolerance to cold. d) Weight gain and increased appetite. b) Tachycardia and chest pain. A client's dose of isosorbide dinitrate is increased from 40 mg to 60 mg PO daily. When the client reports the onset of a headache prior to the next scheduled dose, which action should the nurse implement? a) Hold the next scheduled dose of isosorbide dinitrate 60 mg and administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen. b) Administer the 40 mg of isosorbide dinitrate and then contact the healthcare provider. c) Administer the 60 mg dose of isosorbide dinitrate and a PRN dose of acetaminophen. d) Do not administer the next dose of isosorbide dinitrate or any acetaminophen until notifying the healthcare provider. c) Administer the 60 mg dose of isosorbide dinitrate and a PRN dose of acetaminophen. The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), for a client with hypertension and heart failure. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and notes that the client's serum potassium level is 5.9 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first? a) Withhold the scheduled dose. b) Check the client's apical pulse. c) Notify the healthcare provider. d) Repeat the serum potassium level. a) Withhold the scheduled dose. A client is receiving metoprolol. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain? a) Temperature. b) Lung sounds. c) Blood pressure. d) Urinary output. c) Blood pressure. The mother of a newborn asks the nurse why her infant needs the vitamin K injection. Which information should the nurse provide? Bacteria that synthesize vitamin K are not present in the newborn's intestinal tract. 2 multiple choice options A client is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease and receives a prescription for esomeprazole 20 mg capsule daily. When providing this client with discharge teaching, the nurse should include which instruction? take at the same time each day one hour before eating a meal 2 multiple choice options A client at 30 weeks gestation is in preterm labor. The healthcare provider prescribes two 12-mg doses of betamethasone intramuscularly every 12 hours. The client asks the nurse why she is receiving betamethasone. Which information should the nurse use to explain the action of the medication? stimulates fetal surfactant production 2 multiple choice options A client receives a new prescription for pentazocine, a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist after an opioid agonist is discontinued. Which is the advantage for the client when the new prescription is implemented? used to decrease substance abuse disorder 2 multiple choice options The healthcare provider prescribes oral antifungal therapy for a client with onychomycosis. Which information should the nurse tell the client? the infection is difficult to eradicate and requires prolonged therapy for 3 to 6 months 2 multiple choice options A client receives a new prescription for an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which client history contraindicates its use? renal artery stenosis 3 multiple choice options Which side effects should the nurse monitor for a client who is receiving dexamethasone following neurosurgery? (Select all that apply.) Mood swings, increased weight gain Dexamethasone is a long-acting glucocorticoid prescribed for neurosurgical procedures because it suppresses inflammation and has a low sodium-retaining ability, which is important in averting cerebral edema. However, the medication does produce the following side effects such as: mood swings, an increase in appetite, resulting in weight gain, hyperglycemia (serum glucose level above 120 mg/dl) which is related to the gluconeogenesis properties of corticosteroids, delayed in wound healing related to immune suppression properties, and complete blood count resulting in a decreased in WBC and hemoglobin (less than 12mg/dl). When a client is receiving dexamethasone, they should be monitored for these side effects. A client is taking sulfisoxazole for a urinary tract infection (UTI) and complains of nausea and gastric upset since starting the medication. Which additional adverse reaction should the nurse instruct the client to report? rash 3 multiple choice options What pathophysiological action supports the expected outcome for a client with chronic cancer pain who is treated with imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant? decreases transmission of pain impulses by altering serotonin and norepinephrine activity at nerve synapses 2 multiple choice options Which statement by a client warrants further instruction by the nurse about the changing insulin needs of a diabetic client during pregnancy? I will increase my insulin dosage by 5 units each month during the first trimester 2 multiple choice options A client who uses ipratropium reports having nausea, blurred vision, headaches, and insomnia after using the inhaler. Which action should the nurse implement first? withhold medication and report symptoms and vital signs to the healthcare provider 2 multiple choice options A client is admitted for atrial fibrillation, and the healthcare provider prescribes disopyramide. After explaining the action of this antidysrhythmic agent, which complaint should the nurse instruct the client to report? daily weight gain of 2 pounds 2 multiple choice options A client is taking cyclosporine for renal allograft rejection prevention. After 9 months of drug therapy, the nurse reviews laboratory data and notes that the blood urea nitrogen level is 36 mg/dl. What additional finding should the nurse identify? creatinine 2.8 mg/dl 2 multiple choice options The healthcare provider prescribes pyridostigmine bromide tablets for a client with myasthenia gravis (MG). Which instruction should the nurse provide this client? that the medication is not a cure but it does relieve symptoms 2 multiple choice options When prescribed for a client with hepatic encephalopathy, which is the therapeutic action of lactulose? Lowers the pH of the colon 2 multiple choice options A client with Paget's disease is started on calcitonin 500 mcg subcutaneously daily. During the initial treatment, which is the priority nursing action? Observe the client for signs of hypersensitivity 2 multiple choice options A client is beginning therapy with montelukast PO 10 mg once a day in the evening. The client asks the nurse, "When should I begin to feel better?" How should the nurse respond? peak is 3-4 hours with duration of 24 hours 2 multiple choice options A client is receiving fentanyl via an epidural infusion. Which side effect should the nurse anticipate in the first 24 hours of epidural analgesia? urinary retention 2 multiple choice options The nurse is administering haloperidol 0.5 mg IM PRN to a client for the first time. What side effects should the nurse assess the client for during the initial dose? dystonia 2 multiple choice options Which findings should the nurse identify in an adult client with possible chronic salicylate intoxication? tinnitus and hearing loss 2 multiple choice options While reviewing the client's electronic medical record (EMR), the nurse assesses a client who is at risk for a possible interaction with an over-the-counter (OTC) decongestant. Which client health history should the nurse report to the healthcare provider concerning the OTC medication? (Select all that apply). chronic hypertension 2 multiple choice options A client with depression receives a prescription for amitriptyline. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching? avoid the consumption of alcohol 2 multiple choice options The healthcare provider discontinues prednisone, a glucocorticoid, for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which instructions should the nurse give the client about the regimen to follow? the dose must be tapered of the course of 7 to 10 days 2 multiple choice options Which is the effect of beta-blocking agents when used for the treatment of glaucoma? inhibiting aqueous humor production 2 multiple choice options A client with chronic gouty arthritis takes allopurinol and experiences an acute attack of gouty arthritis. The healthcare provider prescribes concurrent low-dose colchicine. Which information should the nurse provide the client that best explains the action of the colchicine? Reduces inflammation at the affected site 2 multiple choice options A client who has Trichomonas vaginalis receives a prescription for metronidazole. Which instruction should the nurse provide during client education? avoid over the counter antitussives 2 multiple choice options A client with chronic pancreatitis receives a new prescription for pancrelipase. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in this client's teaching? take the medication when consuming food 2 multiple choice options A client receives a prescription for sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which instruction should the nurse provide the client? drink at least 8 glasses of water a day 2 multiple choice options The nurse receives a unit of blood from the blood bank for a postoperative client who is currently in the X-ray department. Which action should the nurse implement? return the blood to the blood bank for refrigeration within 30 minutes 2 multiple choice options A client who is receiving chemotherapy is prescribed ondansetron. Which side effect should the nurse include in the teaching plan? headache 2 multiple choice options A resident of a long-term care facility is taking lithium carbonate to treat bipolar disorder. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client's caregivers? report symptoms of hypothyroidism such as fatigue and constipation 2 multiple choice options The nurse administers the initial dose of a fentanyl transdermal patch to a client with chronic pain. When monitoring the client an hour later, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain? numeric pain scale 2 multiple choice options A 48-year-old client is experiencing a severe anaphylactic reaction to an injection of contrast media. Which pharmacologic agent is of greatest use in this situation? epinephrine 2 multiple choice options A client asks the nurse to explain the meaning of a narrow therapeutic index of a medication. Which information should the nurse use to answer the question? a small margin exists between safe and toxic plasma levels 2 multiple choice options Based on the blood culture and sensitivity results, the healthcare provider prescribes an IV aminoglycoside antibiotic and discontinues the current prescription for another broad-spectrum antibiotic. The medication administration record indicates that the client received the broad-spectrum antibiotic two hours ago. Which action should the nurse implement? administer the initial dose of aminoglycoside antibiotic as soon as possible 2 multiple choice options A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis is experiencing profound weakness, blurry vision, and shooting pains in both legs. Which medication is considered the best course of treatment for the nurse to administer? high dose methlyprednisolone IV 2 multiple choice options The healthcare provider has prescribed digoxin for a client who has been taking furosemide for six months. What laboratory serum levels should the nurse review before administering the digoxin? potassium 2 multiple choice options A client receives a new prescription for ciprofloxacin, a synthetic quinolone. When teaching about this drug, which information in the client's history requires special emphasis by the nurse? works 20 hours a week as a lifeguard at the pool 2 multiple choice options Miotic drug therapy for the treatment of glaucoma is based chiefly upon which physiologic action? enhancing aqueous humor outflow 2 multiple choice options A client calls the clinic and states that she forgot to take her oral contraceptives for the past two days. Which instruction is best for the nurse to provide to this client? Take 2 pills a day for 2 days and use an alternate method of contraception for 7 days 2 multiple choice options A healthcare provider prescribes cefadroxil for a client with a postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for which additional drug allergy before administering this prescription? penicillins 2 multiple choice options An emergency department triage nurse is interviewing a female client who has a history of epilepsy with tonic-clonic seizures controlled by phenytoin. Which information is most significant in planning this client's care? she ran out of her medication 4 days ago 2 multiple choice options Which action should the nurse implement to provide analgesic titration for a client in pain? determine the optimal analgesic dosage required that causes the least side effects 2 multiple choice options A client receives a prescription for esomeprazole for heartburn. Which finding in the client's history should the nurse report to the healthcare provider before administering the prescription? history of deep vein thrombosis 2 multiple choice options A client who was recently diagnosed with myasthenia gravis receives a prescription for pyridostigmine, a cholinergic agent. Which information should the nurse instruct the client to implement when taking this medication? to report muscle weakness or bradycardia 2 multiple choice options A male client who is in the terminal stage of cancer is cared for at home by his family and receives a prescription for morphine at a rate to control intractable pain. When the hospice nurse visits, the client awakens, moans in severe pain, and asks for an increase in the morphine dosage. After determining the client's respirations are 10 per minute, what is the best action for the nurse to implement? Titrate the morphine dose upward until the client has adequate pain relief 2 multiple choice options A client who takes a statin and gemfibrozil for hyperlipidemia reports the onset of muscle pain and weakness. Which additional assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain? serum liver enzymes 2 multiple choice options A client receives a new prescription for nitroglycerin tablets. Which instruction should the nurse include in this client's teaching? place under the tongue as needed every 5 mins up to 3 times 2 multiple choice options A female client receives a prescription for cefadroxil for a urinary tract infection. The client informs the nurse that she is currently taking oral contraceptives (OCP). Which information is important for the nurse to share with the client? use an additional form of contraception until your menstrual cycle 2 multiple choice options A client with pneumonia receives a prescription for tetracycline. Which precaution should the nurse include in this client's teaching? avoid dairy products for 2 hours after taking this medication 2 multiple choice options A client is taking danazol for endometriosis and calls the clinic nurse to complain of a dark, swollen, and painful leg. Which instructions should the nurse provide the client? proceed to the closest emergency room 2 multiple choice options The therapeutic effect of insulin in treating type 1 diabetes mellitus is based on which physiologic action? facilitates transport of glucose into the cells 2 multiple choice options Which drug of choice is indicated for acute ventricular dysrhythmias associated with myocardial infarction? amiodarone 2 multiple choice options The healthcare provider prescribes medication for an older adult client who is complaining of insomnia and instructs the client to return in two weeks. The nurse should question which prescription? Eszopiclone 10 mg orally at bedtime 2 multiple choice options When assessing a client prior to the administration of digoxin, which data is most important for the nurse to consider? irregular apical pulse with a rate of 87 2 multiple choice options The nurse should expect the healthcare provider to prescribe which treatment regimen for a client with a peptic ulcer caused by Helicobacter pylori ? (Select all that apply.) Clarithromycin, Metronidazole A client with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving a prescription for minocycline. Which side effect is most important for the nurse to instruct the client to report? loss of balance and dizziness 2 multiple choice options Which route should the nurse clarify with the healthcare provider prior to administering a drug with a high first-pass effect? oral 3 multiple choice options A 38-year-old gravida 2 para 2 is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis 9-months postpartum. A prescription is written for metronidazole. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the client before initiating treatment? method of infant feeding 2 multiple choice options A client who is diagnosed with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus receives a prescription for vancomycin. Which assessment should the nurse perform to identify a potential adverse effect? whisper test 2 multiple choice options Which common side effect should the nurse alert a female client about when medroxyprogesterone is prescribed? vaginal bleeding after discontinuing the medication 2 multiple choice options An older client is taking warfarin sodium PO 2.5 mg twice a day. Which laboratory value should the nurse identify as a therapeutic response of the medication? INR of 2 to 3 2 multiple choice options A client with chronic schizophrenia illness is admitted after taking risperidone 10 mg/day for three months. The nurse implements a daily assessment using the "Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale" (AIMS). Which findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? tremors and muscle twitching 2 multiple choice options What teaching should the nurse provide a client who has received a new prescription for sildenafil? (Select all that apply.) Report rebound priapism that occurs for 4 hours or more, can cause facial flushing and headache, take within 30-60 mins of sexual stimulation A male client with meningitis is prescribed cefotaxime IV and asks the nurse why he cannot receive an oral drug, such as cefaclor or cefadroxil, that he has taken before for infections. How should the nurse respond when considering the actions of cephalosporins? cefotaxime provides therapeutic CNS concentrations 2 multiple choice options The nurse is providing medication teaching for a client who has recently received a prescription for clozapine. Which instruction should be included in this client's teaching plan? rise slowly from a lying position 2 multiple choice options A school-aged child is taking methylphenidate hydrochloride for the treatment of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). The mother tells the nurse that she gives the medication at bedtime so it is "working" during school the next morning. Which modification to the administration plan should the nurse recommend to this mother? administer at least 6 hours before bedtime 2 multiple choice options Which is the expected outcome of esomeprazole when prescribed for a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? promotion of rapid tissue healing 2 multiple choice options The nurse should instruct a client to avoid which product while taking carisoprodol for muscle spasms? alcohol 2 multiple choice options The nurse should withhold which medication if a client reports nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea? colchicine 2 multiple choice options A pediatric client who has been diagnosed with partial seizures receives a prescription for topiramate. Which information should the nurse provide to the child's parents? do not crush prior to administration 2 multiple choice options The nurse reviews the new prescription, phenelzine, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI), for a client on the psychiatric unit with depression. Which information is most important for the nurse to assess? consumption of any alcohol or tyramine-rich foods 2 multiple choice options uAn adult patient is being discharged home on Digoxin. Which statements below verbalized by the patient demonstrates they understand how to properly take this medication? Select all that apply: "I will measure my pulse rate before every dose I take." . "It is important that I immediately report any vision changes I may experience while taking this medication." 2 multiple choice options An infant is ordered a scheduled dose of Digoxin. The patient's apical pulse rate is 78 bpm. The nurse would: Hold the dose and notify the physician 2 multiple choice options The _____ ______ secrete insulin which are located in the _______. Beta cells, pancreas 2 multiple choice options Type 1 diabetics typically have the following clinical characteristics: Thin, young with ketones present in the urine 2 multiple choice options Which of the following patients is at most risk for Type 2 diabetes? (Type 2 diabetes is related to lifestyle) A 28 year old male with a BMI of 49. 2 multiple choice options A patient with diabetes has a morning glucose of 50. The patient is sweaty, cold, and clammy. Which of the following nursing interventions is the MOST important? Give the patient ½ cup (4 oz) of fruit juice 2 multiple choice options A 36-year-old male is newly diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes. Which of the following treatments do you expect the patient to be started on initially Diet and exercise regime 2 multiple choice options Which of the following statements are true regarding Type 2 diabetes treatment? Insulin may be needed during times of surgery or illness 2 multiple choice options Which of the following symptoms do NOT present in hyperglycemia? Blood glucose 60 mg/dL 2 multiple choice options What statement or statements are INCORRECT regarding Diabetic Ketoacidosis? Cheyne-stokes breathing will always present in DKA. Severe hypoglycemia is a hallmark sign in DKA. 2 multiple choice options A patient has a blood glucose of 58 and is sweating, cold, and clammy. The patient is conscious. What is your next nursing intervention? Give the patient 15 grams of a simple carbohydrate 2 multiple choice options A patient who has diabetes is nothing by mouth as prep for surgery. The patient states they feel like their blood sugar is low. You check the glucose and find it to be 52. The next nursing intervention would be to Administer Dextrose 50% IV per protocol 2 multiple choice options A patient with Type 2 Diabetes is started on the medication Glyburide. Which of the following statements by the patient causes concern? "I will consume no more than 8 oz. of alcohol per week." 2 multiple choice options A patient is scheduled to take a morning dose of Metformin. The patient is scheduled for surgery tomorrow. Which of the following nursing interventions are correct? Hold the dose and notify the doctor for further orders uMetformin (Glucophage) is held 48 hours prior to surgery (however a doctor's order is needed for this). Therefore, you should hold the dose and call the doctor for further orders. 2 multiple choice options A patient is scheduled to take 10 units of Humulin N at 1100. When is the patient most susceptible for hypoglycemia? 1900 Humulin N is an intermediate-acting insulin. The peak of this medication is 8 hours 2 multiple choice options A patient has a blood glucose of 400. Which of the following medications could be the cause of this? Prednisone 2 multiple choice options A patient newly diagnosed with diabetes is about to be discharged home. You are watching the patient administer insulin. Which of the following actions causes you to re-educate them They massaged the site after administering the insulin. 2 multiple choice options When is a patient most susceptible to hypoglycemic symptoms after the administration of insulin? Peak 2 multiple choice options Which of the following insulins can be administered intravenously? Humulin R 3 multiple choice options Which of the following insulins has no peak but a duration of 24 hours? Lantus 2 multiple choice options A patient with diabetes is experiencing a blood glucose of 275 when waking. What is a typical treatment for this phenomenon? The patient may need a night time dose of an intermediate-acting insulin to counteract the morning hyperglycemia This is known as the DAWN PHENOMENON and is best treated with a night time dose of an intermediate-acting insulin to counteract the morning hyperglycemia. 2 multiple choice options True or False: The Somogyi effect causes the patient to experience an increase in their blood glucose during the hours of 2-3 am. False The Somogyi effect causes the patient to experience a DECREASE in their blood glucose during the hours of 2-3 am. 1 multiple choice option A patient is experiencing Digoxin Toxicity. What is the antidote for this medication? Digibind 2 multiple choice options Fill in the blank regarding the negative feedback loop for thyroid hormone production: The ______________ produces TRH (Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone) which causes the anterior pituitary gland to produce _______________ which in turn causes the thyroid gland to release _______ and _______. Hypothalamus, TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone), T3 and T4 2 multiple choice options A patient is being discharged home for treatment of hypothyroidism. Which medication is most commonly prescribed for this condition? Synthroid 2 multiple choice options You are performing discharge teaching with a patient who is going home on Synthroid. Which statement by the patient causes you to re-educate the patient about this medication? "I will take this medication at bedtime with a snack." Needs to be taken in the morning on an empty stomach 2 multiple choice options A patient is admitted with complaints of palpations, excessive sweating, and unable to tolerate heat. In addition, the patient voices concern about how her appearance has changed over the past year. The patient presents with protruding eyeballs and pretibial myxedema on the legs and feet. Which of the following is the likely cause of the patient's signs and symptoms? Graves Disease 2 multiple choice options A patient who is in her first trimester of pregnancy is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which medication do you suspect the patient will be started on? Propylthiouracil (PTU) This is the only thyroid med that can be used for 1st trimester 2 multiple choice options A patient was recently discharged home for treatment of hypothyroidism and was ordered to take Synthroid for treatment. The patient is re-admitted with signs and symptoms of the following: heart rate 42, blood pressure 70/56, blood glucose 55, and body temperature of 96.8 'F. The patient is very fatigued and drowsy. The family reports the patient has not been taking Synthroid since being discharged home from the hospital. Which of the following conditions is this patient most likely experiencing? Myxedema Coma The red flags in this question are the patient's signs/symptoms and the report from the family the patient hasn't been taking the prescribed Synthroid. uThe patient is showing signs and symptoms of extreme hypothyroidism known as Myxedema coma (which is life-threatening if not treated). 2 multiple choice options A patient is being educated on how to take their anti-thyroid medication. Which of the following statements are INCORRECT? "I will continue taking aspirin daily." The patient needs to be instructed NOT to take aspirin because it increases thyroid hormones 2 multiple choice options A patient with hypothyroidism is having pain 6 on 1-10 scale in the right hip due to recent hip surgery. Which of the following medications are NOT appropriate for this patient? Select all that apply: Fentanyl Morphine Dilaudid Patients who have hypothyroidism are very sensitive to narcotics and should take NON-NARCOTICS for pain relief. Which of the following side effects are possible for a patient taking an anti-thyroid medication? Agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia 2 multiple choice options Which of the following patients are at risk for developing Cushing's Syndrome? A patient taking glucocorticoids for several weeks. CUSHING'S DISEASE is caused by the pituitary gland producing too much ACTH which in turn increases cortisol. Cushing's SYNDROME is caused by medication therapy of glucocorticoid 2 multiple choice options Addison's Disease is Decreased secretion of aldosterone and cortisol 2 multiple choice options A patient with Addison's Disease is being discharged home on Prednisone. Which of the following statements by the patient warrants you to re-educate the patient? "I will take this medication as needed when symptoms present." 2 multiple choice options A patient is admitted to the ER. The patient is unconscious on arrival. However, the patient's family is with the patient and reports that before the patient became unconscious she was complaining of severe pain in the abdomen, legs, and back, and has been experiencing worsening confusion. In addition, they also report the patient has not been taking any medications. The patient was recently discharged from the hospital for treatment of low cortisol and aldosterone levels. On assessment, you note the patient's blood pressure is 70/45. What disorder is this patient most likely experiencing? Addisonian Crisis 2 multiple choice options A patient with Cushing's syndrome will be undergoing an adrenalectomy. Which of the following will be included in the patient's discharge teaching after the procedure? Glucocorticoid replacement therapy 2 multiple choice options Which statement below best describes the mechanism of action of how SSRIs work? SSRIs, (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors), inhibit the reuptake of the neurotransmitter serotonin by the pre-synaptic neuron. 2 multiple choice options The physician determines a patient needs to be started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). As the nurse you know which medication below is NOT an SSRI? Rasagiline 2 multiple choice options A patient is prescribed Fluvoxamine for treatment of obsessive compulsive disorder. What should the nurse include in the patient education about this medication? Expect signs and symptoms to improve within one month to 6 weeks 2 multiple choice options A nurse is planning dietary counseling for the client taking triamterene (Dyrenium). The nurse plans to include which of the following in a list of foods that are acceptable? Pears canned in water Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic, and clients taking this medication should be cautioned against eating foods that are high in potassium 2 multiple choice options A nurse is providing instructions to a client regarding quinapril hydrochloride (Accupril). The nurse tells the client To rise slowly from a lying to a sitting position 2 multiple choice options A 36-year-old patient is admitted to the ER. The patient is extremely diaphoretic, shivering, experiencing muscle rigidity, and irritability. The patient's heart rate is 140 and temperature 102.6 'F. The patient has a history of depression, diabetes, atrial fibrillation, and hypertension. The patient's family reports the patient has also been experiencing a constant dry cough and has been taking an over-the-counter medication in an attempt to get relief from the cough. The patient is currently taking Sertraline and the other medications below. What other medication taken by the patient should the nurse immediately notify the doctor about? Dextromethorphan serotonin syndrome may be presenting. This syndrome can occur when the patient takes an SSRI along with another medication like dextromethorphan. Dextromethorphan is an over-the-counter cough medicine 2 multiple choice options SSRIs can interact with other types of medications. What medications below should the nurse educate the patient to avoid while taking an SSRI? Select all that apply: St. Johns Wort MAOIs If SSRIs are combined with St. John's Wort or MAOIs it can lead to serotonin syndrome 2 multiple choice options A two-year-old child with congestive heart failure has been receiving digoxin for one week. The nurse needs to recognize that an early sign of digitalis toxicity is vomiting 2 multiple choice options A client with an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the hospital for treatment. Which drug, used to treat clients with rheumatoid arthritis, has both an anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effect? Prednisone (Deltasone) 2 multiple choice options uWhich of the following NSAIDs is used to prevent thrombosis? aspirin (Zorprin) 2 multiple choice options To minimize the risk of dyspnea and GI bleeding, OTC ibuprofen is given: with meals 2 multiple choice options Which of the following groups of clients are most at risk for GI bleeding from the use of NSAIDs? clients with arthritis 2 multiple choice options Which of the following statements about intravenous administration of steroids is true? Steroids administered intravenously can be either in diluted or undiluted form 1 multiple choice option Which of the following adverse effects is associated with levothyroxine (Synthroid) therapy tachycardia 2 multiple choice options Serious adverse effects of oral contraceptives include Thromboembolic complications. 2 multiple choice options Hormonal agents are used to treat some cancers. An example would be: Estrogen antagonists to treat breast cancer 2 multiple choice options The nurse is reviewing the drug list of an elderly client who is taking a lot of medications given by different health care provider. The client reports that "Lately, there has been roaring in my ears". Which medication would the nurse determine could be responsible for the client's complaint? aspirin (Ecotrin 2 multiple choice options A 15-year-old female who ingested 15 tablets of maximum strength acetaminophen 45 minutes ago is rushed to the emergency department. Which of these orders should the nurse do first? Gastric lavage Gastric lavage (irrigation) and aspiration consist of flushing the stomach with fluids and then aspirating the fluid back out. This procedure is done in life-threatening cases such as acetaminophen toxicity and only if less than one (1) hour has occurred after ingestion. 2 multiple choice options A 25-year-old male client has been newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism and will take levothyroxine (Synthroid) 50 mcg/day by mouth. As part of the teaching plan, the nurse emphasizes that this medication: Should be taken in the morning 2 multiple choice options The nurse is caring for a client with a serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L. The client is placed on a cardiac monitor and receives 40 mEq potassium chloride in 1000 ml of 5% dextrose in water IV. Which of the following EKG patterns indicates to the nurse that the infusions should be discontinued? Tall peaked "T" waves A tall peaked T wave is a sign of hyperkalemia. The healthcare provider should be notified regarding discontinuing the medication. 2 multiple choice options A client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg daily. The health care provider has written a new order to give metoprolol (Lopressor) 25 mg B.I.D. In assessing the client prior to administering the medications, which of the following should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? . Blood pressure 94/60 mm Hg 2 multiple choice options A 33-year-old male client with heart failure has been taking furosemide for the past week. Which of the following assessment cues below may indicate the client is experiencing a negative side effect from the medication? Decreased appetite Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is used for pulmonary edema, edem