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NURS5461 / NURS 5461 Final Comprehensive Exam: Adult Gerontology Management Across the Continuum 2026/2027 | 100 Q&A | Verified | Grade A | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Pass your NURS5461 Final Comprehensive Exam – Adult Gerontology Management Across the Continuum of Care at the University of Texas at Arlington with this complete guide featuring 100 verified questions and answers, updated for the latest 2026/2027 curriculum and graded A+. This Grade A resource for the NURS 5461 / NURS5461 Final Comprehensive Exam (Latest 2026/2027 Update | UTA) contains 100% verified questions and answers covering every essential topic required for success on the final exam in the Adult Gerontology Management course. Comprehensive Content Coverage Includes: Continuum of Care Framework: Definitions and interrelationships across levels of care – acute care (medical-surgical units, intensive care, telemetry), post-acute care (skilled nursing facilities, inpatient rehabilitation facilities, long-term acute care hospitals, home health care), long-term care (nursing homes, assisted living facilities, memory care units, continuing care retirement communities), community-based services (adult day health centers, PACE programs, senior centers, meal delivery, transportation services), and end-of-life care (hospice, palliative care, inpatient hospice units). Transitional Care Management: Evidence-based transitional care models (Coleman's Care Transitions Intervention – coaching, medication self-management, red flags, follow-up; Naylor's Transitional Care Model – advanced practice nurse-led coordination). Discharge planning processes – comprehensive assessment, patient and caregiver education, medication reconciliation using the "brown bag" method, scheduling follow-up appointments within 7 days, ensuring durable medical equipment and home services are arranged. Readmission prevention strategies – identifying high-risk patients, post-discharge phone calls, home visits, medication management programs, and leveraging community health workers. Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment (CGA): Multidimensional, interdisciplinary diagnostic process to determine medical, psychosocial, and functional capabilities. Components include: Physical health: Review of systems, chronic disease control, sensory deficits (vision – Snellen, hearing – whispered voice or audiometry), polypharmacy review (Beers Criteria, STOPP/START criteria), nutritional status (Mini Nutritional Assessment – MNA, unintended weight loss). Functional status: Basic Activities of Daily Living (ADLs – bathing, dressing, toileting, transferring, continence, feeding) and Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADLs – using telephone, shopping, food preparation, housekeeping, laundry, transportation, medication management, finances). Assessment tools – Katz Index, Lawton IADL scale. Cognitive assessment: Mini-Cog (clock draw and 3-word recall), Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA) for mild impairment, Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) for dementia severity. Screening for delirium – Confusion Assessment Method (CAM). Mental health: Depression screening – Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-2, PHQ-9); anxiety – GAD-7; alcohol misuse – AUDIT-C. Social support: Living situation, caregiver availability, social networks, elder abuse screening, financial resources, advance care planning status. Common Geriatric Syndromes: Falls: Risk assessment using Timed Up and Go (TUG), Get Up and Go, Berg Balance Scale. Multifactorial interventions – home safety evaluation (remove tripping hazards, grab bars, non-slip mats), medication review (reduce sedatives, antihypertensives), vision correction, strength and balance exercises (Tai Chi, physical therapy), vitamin D supplementation. Frailty: Phenotype model (unintentional weight loss, exhaustion, low physical activity, slowness, weakness). Deficit accumulation frailty index. Interventions – protein-calorie supplementation, resistance exercise, comprehensive geriatric assessment, medication deprescribing. Delirium: Predisposing and precipitating factors. Prevention protocols – orientation, hydration, early mobility, sleep hygiene, avoidance of restraints and bladder catheters. Management – treat underlying cause, nonpharmacologic interventions, avoid antipsychotics unless severe agitation. Urinary Incontinence: Types – stress, urge, overflow, functional, mixed. Evaluation – bladder diary, post-void residual, urinalysis. Behavioral treatments (pelvic floor exercises, bladder training, scheduled voiding), pharmacologic (anticholinergics for overactive bladder – oxybutynin, tolterodine; beta-3 agonists – mirabegron), surgical options. Pressure Injuries: Risk assessment – Braden Scale. Prevention – pressure redistribution surfaces, regular repositioning, nutrition optimization, skin care. Staging (1-4, unstageable, deep tissue injury). Treatment – wound cleansing, debridement, moisture management, advanced dressings, negative pressure wound therapy. Sleep Disorders: Insomnia – CBT-I (cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia), sleep hygiene, melatonin, low-dose doxepin, ramelteon. Avoid benzodiazepines and Z-drugs in older adults (falls risk). Sleep apnea screening – STOP-BANG, referral for sleep study. Sensory Impairment: Vision – cataracts, glaucoma, macular degeneration, diabetic retinopathy. Hearing – presbycusis, cerumen impaction, hearing aids, assistive listening devices. Chronic Disease Management in Older Adults: Age-related changes affecting pharmacokinetics (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion) and pharmacodynamics (increased sensitivity to many drugs). Application of Beers Criteria (potentially inappropriate medications in older adults – avoid benzodiazepines, anticholinergics, non-benzodiazepine hypnotics, NSAIDs, skeletal muscle relaxants, etc.) and STOPP/START criteria for deprescribing and initiating indicated therapies. Specific disease management: Heart failure (HFrEF and HFpEF): Diuretics for volume overload, ACE inhibitors/ARBs, beta-blockers (carvedilol, metoprolol succinate, bisoprolol), spironolactone, SGLT2 inhibitors (empagliflozin, dapagliflozin). Monitor electrolytes, renal function, daily weights. COPD: GOLD classification, inhaled bronchodilators (LABA, LAMA), ICS for exacerbations, pulmonary rehabilitation, oxygen therapy, non-invasive ventilation, smoking cessation. Diabetes mellitus type 2: Individualized glycemic targets (less stringent in frail older adults with limited life expectancy). Avoid sulfonylureas (hypoglycemia risk). Prefer metformin, DPP-4 inhibitors, GLP-1 agonists, SGLT2 inhibitors (caution with volume status). Dementia: Alzheimer's disease – cholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine) for mild-moderate; memantine for moderate-severe. Behavioral and psychological symptoms – nonpharmacologic first, avoid antipsychotics if possible. Caregiver support. Osteoarthritis: Nonpharmacologic – weight loss, exercise, physical therapy, assistive devices. Pharmacologic – topical NSAIDs, oral acetaminophen (max 3g/day), oral NSAIDs with gastroprotection (lowest dose shortest duration), duloxetine. Intra-articular corticosteroids. Avoid opioids. Osteoporosis: Screening with DXA at age 65+ or earlier with risk factors. Pharmacotherapy – bisphosphonates (alendronate, risedronate, zoledronic acid), denosumab, raloxifene, teriparatide. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation, fall prevention. Palliative and End-of-Life Care: Symptom management in serious illness – pain (WHO ladder, opioid cautious use), dyspnea (opioids, fans, positioning), nausea (antiemetics), constipation (stimulant laxatives, senna, docusate), delirium (haloperidol if needed). Goals of care conversations – using SPIKES or REMAP framework. Advance care planning – living will, durable power of attorney for healthcare, Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment (POLST). Hospice eligibility – prognosis ≤6 months, focus on comfort, discontinuation of disease-modifying therapies. Ethical considerations – surrogate decision-making, futility, voluntary stopping of eating and drinking (VSED), medical aid in dying where legal. Healthcare Financing and Policy: Medicare: Part A (hospital, skilled nursing facility, hospice, home health – eligibility and coverage limits), Part B (outpatient, physician services, durable medical equipment – premiums, deductibles, coinsurance), Part C (Medicare Advantage – private plans, often include Part D), Part D (prescription drug coverage – formularies, coverage gap "donut hole", low-income subsidy). Medicare appeals process for denials. Medicaid: Dual eligibility (Medicare and Medicaid), long-term care coverage (nursing home, home and community-based services waivers), asset and income limits, spend-down provisions. Value-Based Purchasing and Quality Measures: Hospital readmission reduction program (targets for heart failure, COPD, pneumonia, total joint replacement), accountable care organizations (ACOs), merit-based incentive payment system (MIPS), quality indicators for nursing homes (5-star rating system). Interprofessional Team Collaboration: Roles and responsibilities – physician (medical diagnosis, complex procedures), nurse practitioner (comprehensive management, prescribing), registered nurse (bedside care, patient education, care coordination), social worker (discharge planning, psychosocial support, financial resources), physical therapist (mobility, gait, strength, falls prevention), occupational therapist (ADL retraining, home safety evaluation), speech-language pathologist (swallowing, communication), pharmacist (medication reconciliation, deprescribing, Beers criteria review), dietitian (nutritional assessment, supplementation, texture-modified diets), case manager (care transitions, resource coordination, insurance navigation). Effective communication tools – SBAR, huddles, interdisciplinary team meetings. Each of the 100 questions and answers is expert verified to reflect the latest evidence-based guidelines (AGS Beers Criteria, USPSTF, CMS, JNC, GOLD, GINA) and UTA College of Nursing and Health Innovation curriculum standards. With fully verified Q&A and our Pass Guarantee, this is the definitive tool to ace your NURS5461 Final Comprehensive Exam on the first attempt and successfully complete your Adult Gerontology course. Get instant access now and start studying today.

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NURS 5461/ NURS5461 Final Comprehensive Exam
Adult Gerontology Management Across the
Continuum of Care Guide| UTA

(Latest 2026/2027 Update) 100% Verified
Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100 questions



Q1: An 82-year-old patient is being discharged from the hospital to a Skilled Nursing Facility
(SNF) for rehabilitation after a hip fracture. To qualify for Medicare Part A coverage in the SNF,
which of the following criteria must be met?

A. The patient must have been an inpatient in the hospital for at least 4 nights.

B. The patient requires daily skilled nursing care or rehabilitation services. [CORRECT]

C. The patient must be admitted to the SNF within 10 days of hospital discharge.

D. The patient must require custodial care only for assistance with ADLs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Medicare Part A covers SNF stays if the patient requires daily skilled care (rehab or
nursing) that can only be provided in a SNF on an inpatient basis. A 3-night hospital stay is
required, not 4, and custodial care is not covered. Admission generally must be within 30 days,
but the immediate clinical necessity is the daily skilled need.



Q2: Which transitional care model focuses on preventing readmissions by using a "Discharge
Advocate" to help patients understand medications and follow-up appointments?

A. Project RED (Re-Engineered Discharge) [CORRECT]

B. BOOST (Better Outcomes for Older Adults through Safe Transitions)

C. The Guided Care Model

D. The Transitional Care Model (TCM)

,Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Project RED utilizes patient-centered Discharge Advocates to ensure patients
understand their discharge plan, medication reconciliation, and follow-up, specifically targeting
readmission reduction. BOOST is a toolkit for hospitals but is broader; TCM involves advanced
practice nurses providing home visits.



Q3: A patient with end-stage COPD requiring prolonged mechanical ventilation is being
evaluated for discharge. Which setting is most appropriate for this patient’s level of acuity?

A. Skilled Nursing Facility (SNF)

B. Inpatient Rehabilitation Facility (IRF)

C. Long-Term Acute Care Hospital (LTAC) [CORRECT]

D. Assisted Living Facility (ALF)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: LTACs are designed for patients who require extended acute care (average stay >25
days) such as prolonged ventilator weaning or complex wound care, which exceeds the typical
length of stay in an acute care hospital. SNFs generally do not accept ventilator-dependent
patients unless they have specific subacute units, and IRFs focus on intensive rehab rather than
acute medical management.



Q4: Medicare Part A Home Health benefits require that the patient be considered "homebound."
Which scenario best describes the homebound status?

A. The patient drives themselves to church weekly but finds it exhausting.

B. The patient leaves home only for medical appointments or short infrequent outings for
non-medical reasons, resulting in a considerable and taxing effort. [CORRECT]

C. The patient is able to grocery shop independently once a week.

D. The patient attends adult day care 5 days a week for socialization.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Medicare defines homebound as leaving home infrequently and requiring a taxing
effort. Absences for medical treatment or short non-medical outings (like a haircut) are permitted
if they require significant assistance or effort. Regular independent outings for social or shopping
purposes generally disqualify the patient.

.

,Q5: When transferring a patient from an Acute Care Hospital to an Inpatient Rehabilitation
Facility (IRF), which "75% Rule" criteria must be considered?

A. 75% of the patients in the facility must be over the age of 65.

B. 75% of the patients must require at least two hours of therapy per day.

C. 75% of the facility's patients must have one of 13 specific conditions requiring intensive
rehabilitation. [CORRECT]

D. 75% of the patients must be discharged within 2 weeks.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The 75% Rule (Compliance Act) requires that IRFs admit a high percentage of
patients who have specific medical conditions (like stroke, spinal cord injury, or major multiple
trauma) requiring intensive rehab, ensuring the facility serves those who most need that level of
care rather than those needing subacute care.



Q6: A nurse is performing medication reconciliation for a patient moving from the hospital to an
Assisted Living Facility (ALF). The patient was on a "holding" dose of digoxin in the hospital.
The discharge orders list digoxin. What is the nurse's priority action?

A. Fax the order to the ALF and assume they will fill it.

B. Verify if the digoxin was a pre-existing medication or started during the hospitalization
and confirm the indication. [CORRECT]

C. Withhold the medication until the patient sees their primary care provider in 2 weeks.

D. Reduce the dose by 50% due to the transition to a lower level of care.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Medication reconciliation requires verifying the home list vs. hospital list. "Holding"
meds in the hospital are often discontinued at discharge unless specifically restarted. Verifying
the indication prevents restarting unnecessary medications that were perhaps inappropriate for
the elderly (Beers Criteria).


.

, Q7: Which of the following is a key component of the "Teach-Back" method during discharge
education for an older adult?

A. Asking the patient if they understand the instructions.

B. Handing the patient a written pamphlet and reading it aloud to them.

C. Asking the patient to explain in their own words what they will do at home to manage
their condition. [CORRECT]

D. Quizzing the patient on the side effects of every medication listed.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The Teach-Back method involves asking the patient to repeat back the instructions in
their own words to confirm understanding. Simply asking "Do you understand?" usually results
in a "yes" regardless of actual comprehension.



Q8: A patient is admitted to an SNF. The Minimum Data Set (MDS) assessment must be
completed within how many days of admission to determine reimbursement and care planning?

A. 7 days

B. 14 days

C. 5 days for Medicare A [CORRECT]

D. 30 days

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: For Medicare Part A stays in a SNF, the Scheduled 5-day assessment (OBRA) must
be completed to set the baseline for the RUG-IV/Case Mix payment and care plan. A 14-day
assessment is also required, but the 5-day is the initial comprehensive one.




.

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