68W LPC Exam Questions And Answers
Course
68W LPC
1. Airway Management
A casualty is unconscious with snoring respirations after a blast injury. What is the best
immediate action?
A. Insert NPA
B. Perform head-tilt chin-lift
C. Insert OPA
D. Begin CPR
Answer: A. Insert NPA
Rationale: Snoring = airway obstruction. In trauma, avoid head-tilt (possible spinal injury). NPA
is the safest rapid airway adjunct for unconscious trauma patients.
2. Hemorrhage Control
A soldier has a severe arterial bleed from the thigh. What is the priority intervention?
A. Apply pressure dressing
B. Elevate limb
C. Apply tourniquet
D. Start IV fluids
Answer: C. Apply tourniquet
Rationale: Massive hemorrhage is the #1 preventable cause of death. Tourniquet immediately
stops arterial bleeding.
3. Shock Recognition
Which finding is most consistent with hypovolemic shock?
A. Bounding pulse
B. Warm, flushed skin
C. Tachycardia and cool clammy skin
D. Bradycardia
Answer: C. Tachycardia and cool clammy skin
Rationale: Early shock → sympathetic response: fast pulse, vasoconstriction → cool, pale,
clammy skin.
,4. Tension Pneumothorax
A casualty has respiratory distress, JVD, and tracheal deviation. What is the treatment?
A. Chest seal
B. Needle decompression
C. Oxygen only
D. Intubation
Answer: B. Needle decompression
Rationale: Classic tension pneumothorax → life-threatening. Immediate needle decompression
relieves pressure.
5. Burns
A patient has partial-thickness burns on both arms. What is the first step in management?
A. Apply ointment
B. Estimate burn size
C. Stop the burning process
D. Give fluids
Answer: C. Stop the burning process
Rationale: Always remove the source (heat/chemical) first before further assessment or
treatment.
6. IV Access
Which vein is most commonly used for IV access in emergency care?
A. Femoral vein
B. Basilic vein
C. Median cubital vein
D. Jugular vein
Answer: C. Median cubital vein
Rationale: It is large, superficial, and stable—ideal for quick IV access.
7. CPR Protocol
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR (single rescuer)?
,A. 15:2
B. 30:2
C. 20:2
D. 10:1
Answer: B. 30:2
Rationale: Standard adult CPR guideline = 30 compressions to 2 breaths.
8. Triage (MASCAL)
A casualty is unconscious, not breathing, but begins breathing after airway repositioning. What
triage category?
A. Immediate
B. Delayed
C. Minimal
D. Expectant
Answer: A. Immediate
Rationale: Airway intervention success = high priority. Needs rapid treatment → Immediate.
9. Heat Injury
Which condition is a true medical emergency?
A. Heat cramps
B. Heat exhaustion
C. Heat stroke
D. Dehydration
Answer: C. Heat stroke
Rationale: Heat stroke involves CNS dysfunction and can cause death rapidly—requires
immediate cooling.
10. Medication (Pain Control)
Which medication is commonly used in combat for moderate to severe pain?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Morphine
D. Aspirin
, Answer: C. Morphine
Rationale: Morphine is a strong opioid used in battlefield pain management (per TCCC
guidelines).
11. Airway Adjunct Contraindication
When is an NPA contraindicated?
A. Unconscious patient
B. Facial trauma with suspected skull fracture
C. Snoring respirations
D. GCS < 8
Answer: B
Rationale: Basilar skull fracture risk → NPA may enter cranial vault.
12. Breathing Assessment
Which is a late sign of hypoxia?
A. Restlessness
B. Tachypnea
C. Cyanosis
D. Anxiety
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyanosis appears late—oxygen levels already critically low.
13. Circulation
Capillary refill time >2 seconds indicates:
A. Normal perfusion
B. Dehydration only
C. Poor perfusion
D. Cardiac arrest
Answer: C
Rationale: Delayed refill = compromised circulation/shock.
14. Tourniquet Placement
Where should a tourniquet be applied?
Course
68W LPC
1. Airway Management
A casualty is unconscious with snoring respirations after a blast injury. What is the best
immediate action?
A. Insert NPA
B. Perform head-tilt chin-lift
C. Insert OPA
D. Begin CPR
Answer: A. Insert NPA
Rationale: Snoring = airway obstruction. In trauma, avoid head-tilt (possible spinal injury). NPA
is the safest rapid airway adjunct for unconscious trauma patients.
2. Hemorrhage Control
A soldier has a severe arterial bleed from the thigh. What is the priority intervention?
A. Apply pressure dressing
B. Elevate limb
C. Apply tourniquet
D. Start IV fluids
Answer: C. Apply tourniquet
Rationale: Massive hemorrhage is the #1 preventable cause of death. Tourniquet immediately
stops arterial bleeding.
3. Shock Recognition
Which finding is most consistent with hypovolemic shock?
A. Bounding pulse
B. Warm, flushed skin
C. Tachycardia and cool clammy skin
D. Bradycardia
Answer: C. Tachycardia and cool clammy skin
Rationale: Early shock → sympathetic response: fast pulse, vasoconstriction → cool, pale,
clammy skin.
,4. Tension Pneumothorax
A casualty has respiratory distress, JVD, and tracheal deviation. What is the treatment?
A. Chest seal
B. Needle decompression
C. Oxygen only
D. Intubation
Answer: B. Needle decompression
Rationale: Classic tension pneumothorax → life-threatening. Immediate needle decompression
relieves pressure.
5. Burns
A patient has partial-thickness burns on both arms. What is the first step in management?
A. Apply ointment
B. Estimate burn size
C. Stop the burning process
D. Give fluids
Answer: C. Stop the burning process
Rationale: Always remove the source (heat/chemical) first before further assessment or
treatment.
6. IV Access
Which vein is most commonly used for IV access in emergency care?
A. Femoral vein
B. Basilic vein
C. Median cubital vein
D. Jugular vein
Answer: C. Median cubital vein
Rationale: It is large, superficial, and stable—ideal for quick IV access.
7. CPR Protocol
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR (single rescuer)?
,A. 15:2
B. 30:2
C. 20:2
D. 10:1
Answer: B. 30:2
Rationale: Standard adult CPR guideline = 30 compressions to 2 breaths.
8. Triage (MASCAL)
A casualty is unconscious, not breathing, but begins breathing after airway repositioning. What
triage category?
A. Immediate
B. Delayed
C. Minimal
D. Expectant
Answer: A. Immediate
Rationale: Airway intervention success = high priority. Needs rapid treatment → Immediate.
9. Heat Injury
Which condition is a true medical emergency?
A. Heat cramps
B. Heat exhaustion
C. Heat stroke
D. Dehydration
Answer: C. Heat stroke
Rationale: Heat stroke involves CNS dysfunction and can cause death rapidly—requires
immediate cooling.
10. Medication (Pain Control)
Which medication is commonly used in combat for moderate to severe pain?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Morphine
D. Aspirin
, Answer: C. Morphine
Rationale: Morphine is a strong opioid used in battlefield pain management (per TCCC
guidelines).
11. Airway Adjunct Contraindication
When is an NPA contraindicated?
A. Unconscious patient
B. Facial trauma with suspected skull fracture
C. Snoring respirations
D. GCS < 8
Answer: B
Rationale: Basilar skull fracture risk → NPA may enter cranial vault.
12. Breathing Assessment
Which is a late sign of hypoxia?
A. Restlessness
B. Tachypnea
C. Cyanosis
D. Anxiety
Answer: C
Rationale: Cyanosis appears late—oxygen levels already critically low.
13. Circulation
Capillary refill time >2 seconds indicates:
A. Normal perfusion
B. Dehydration only
C. Poor perfusion
D. Cardiac arrest
Answer: C
Rationale: Delayed refill = compromised circulation/shock.
14. Tourniquet Placement
Where should a tourniquet be applied?
