West Coast EMT Block 3 Examination
ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Entry-Level
Emergency Medical Technician | Verified
Q&A | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Airway, Respiration & Ventilation (Questions 1–15)
Q1: An EMT is assessing a 58-year-old male with shortness of breath. The patient is sitting in a tripod
position, has audible wheezing, and can only speak two words between breaths. His oxygen saturation is
88% on room air. Which oxygen delivery device should the EMT use FIRST?
A. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
B. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min [CORRECT]
C. Simple face mask at 8 L/min
D. Venturi mask at 24%
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This patient is in severe respiratory distress with hypoxia (SpO2 88%). A non-rebreather mask
at 15 L/min delivers the highest FiO2 (80-95%) and is appropriate for a hypoxic patient in distress. Nasal
cannula and simple mask provide lower oxygen concentrations insufficient for this patient's needs.
Q2: A 24-year-old trauma patient has snoring respirations and gurgling sounds. The EMT should FIRST:
A. Insert an oropharyngeal airway
B. Suction the airway [CORRECT]
C. Begin bag-valve-mask ventilation
D. Apply a cervical collar
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Snoring indicates airway obstruction; gurgling suggests fluid/secretions. Suctioning clears the
airway before other interventions. The EMT should suction for no longer than 15 seconds in adults to
avoid hypoxia.
,Q3: Which patient is a CONTRAINDICATION for nasopharyngeal airway insertion?
A. A conscious patient with a gag reflex
B. A patient with suspected skull fracture or basilar skull fracture [CORRECT]
C. An unconscious patient without a gag reflex
D. A patient with nasal congestion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: NPA insertion is contraindicated with suspected basilar skull fracture due to risk of entering
the cranial vault through a fractured cribriform plate. Blood or clear fluid from the nose or ears, raccoon
eyes, or Battle's sign suggest this injury.
Q4: Proper sizing for an oropharyngeal airway is determined by:
A. Measuring from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw [CORRECT]
B. Measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe
C. Using the patient's age in years as the size number
D. Selecting the largest airway that fits comfortably
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: OPA size is measured from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw or from the
corner of the mouth to the earlobe. An improperly sized OPA can push the tongue backward (too small)
or damage the larynx (too large).
Q5: A patient with COPD presents with respiratory distress. Which oxygen delivery device allows precise
control of oxygen concentration?
A. Non-rebreather mask
B. Nasal cannula
C. Venturi mask [CORRECT]
D. Simple face mask
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Venturi mask delivers precise FiO2 (24-50%) regardless of flow rate, making it ideal for
COPD patients with CO2 retention requiring controlled oxygen therapy. High-flow oxygen can suppress
respiratory drive in chronic CO2 retainers.
Q6: During BVM ventilation, the EMT notes rising resistance and decreased chest rise. The EMT should
FIRST:
A. Increase ventilation rate
B. Reposition the airway and check mask seal [CORRECT]
,C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway
D. Begin chest compressions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Poor chest rise indicates inadequate ventilation, most commonly from improper head
position or mask seal. The EMT should reposition using head-tilt chin-lift or jaw thrust and ensure a
proper mask seal before other interventions.
Q7: End-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) measurement is MOST useful for confirming:
A. Blood glucose level
B. Proper endotracheal tube placement [CORRECT]
C. Blood pressure
D. Oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EtCO2 detection confirms airway placement in the trachea (positive waveform) versus
esophageal intubation (no CO2). It also monitors ventilation effectiveness, perfusion, and metabolic
status. Normal EtCO2 is 35-45 mmHg.
Q8: A patient has stridor on inspiration. This indicates:
A. Lower airway obstruction
B. Upper airway obstruction [CORRECT]
C. Alveolar fluid
D. Pleural effusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stridor (high-pitched sound on inspiration) indicates partial upper airway obstruction at the
larynx or trachea. Wheezing indicates lower airway obstruction. Stridor requires immediate airway
management as complete obstruction may develop.
Q9: Which pulse oximetry reading is MOST concerning?
A. 98% on room air
B. 95% on 2 L/min nasal cannula
C. 88% on 15 L/min non-rebreather [CORRECT]
D. 92% on 6 L/min simple mask
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: SpO2 88% despite maximum supplemental oxygen indicates severe hypoxemia and
, impending respiratory failure. This patient requires immediate ventilatory support and rapid transport.
Values above 90% on appropriate oxygen are less critical.
Q10: The jaw-thrust maneuver is indicated for:
A. All unconscious patients
B. Patients with suspected spinal injury [CORRECT]
C. Patients with intact gag reflex
D. Patients requiring suctioning
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Jaw thrust opens the airway without extending the neck, protecting the cervical spine in
trauma patients. Head-tilt chin-lift is contraindicated with suspected spinal injury. Both maneuvers may
trigger gagging in patients with intact reflexes.
Q11: A patient is apneic with a pulse. The EMT should:
A. Begin chest compressions
B. Provide artificial ventilation at 10-12 breaths/min [CORRECT]
C. Administer high-flow oxygen only
D. Wait for respiratory effort to return
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Apneic patients with a pulse require immediate artificial ventilation at 10-12 breaths/minute
(adult) using BVM. Chest compressions are for cardiac arrest. Oxygen alone is insufficient without
ventilation.
Q12: Suctioning should be limited to ____ seconds in an adult to prevent hypoxia.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15 [CORRECT]
D. 30
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Adult suctioning should not exceed 15 seconds. Pediatric patients require shorter durations
(10 seconds) due to smaller oxygen reserves. Pre-oxygenation before suctioning reduces hypoxic risk.
Q13: A patient with carbon monoxide poisoning may have a normal pulse oximetry reading because:
A. CO binds to hemoglobin and is not detected [CORRECT]
ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Entry-Level
Emergency Medical Technician | Verified
Q&A | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Airway, Respiration & Ventilation (Questions 1–15)
Q1: An EMT is assessing a 58-year-old male with shortness of breath. The patient is sitting in a tripod
position, has audible wheezing, and can only speak two words between breaths. His oxygen saturation is
88% on room air. Which oxygen delivery device should the EMT use FIRST?
A. Nasal cannula at 2 L/min
B. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min [CORRECT]
C. Simple face mask at 8 L/min
D. Venturi mask at 24%
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This patient is in severe respiratory distress with hypoxia (SpO2 88%). A non-rebreather mask
at 15 L/min delivers the highest FiO2 (80-95%) and is appropriate for a hypoxic patient in distress. Nasal
cannula and simple mask provide lower oxygen concentrations insufficient for this patient's needs.
Q2: A 24-year-old trauma patient has snoring respirations and gurgling sounds. The EMT should FIRST:
A. Insert an oropharyngeal airway
B. Suction the airway [CORRECT]
C. Begin bag-valve-mask ventilation
D. Apply a cervical collar
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Snoring indicates airway obstruction; gurgling suggests fluid/secretions. Suctioning clears the
airway before other interventions. The EMT should suction for no longer than 15 seconds in adults to
avoid hypoxia.
,Q3: Which patient is a CONTRAINDICATION for nasopharyngeal airway insertion?
A. A conscious patient with a gag reflex
B. A patient with suspected skull fracture or basilar skull fracture [CORRECT]
C. An unconscious patient without a gag reflex
D. A patient with nasal congestion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: NPA insertion is contraindicated with suspected basilar skull fracture due to risk of entering
the cranial vault through a fractured cribriform plate. Blood or clear fluid from the nose or ears, raccoon
eyes, or Battle's sign suggest this injury.
Q4: Proper sizing for an oropharyngeal airway is determined by:
A. Measuring from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw [CORRECT]
B. Measuring from the tip of the nose to the earlobe
C. Using the patient's age in years as the size number
D. Selecting the largest airway that fits comfortably
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: OPA size is measured from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw or from the
corner of the mouth to the earlobe. An improperly sized OPA can push the tongue backward (too small)
or damage the larynx (too large).
Q5: A patient with COPD presents with respiratory distress. Which oxygen delivery device allows precise
control of oxygen concentration?
A. Non-rebreather mask
B. Nasal cannula
C. Venturi mask [CORRECT]
D. Simple face mask
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Venturi mask delivers precise FiO2 (24-50%) regardless of flow rate, making it ideal for
COPD patients with CO2 retention requiring controlled oxygen therapy. High-flow oxygen can suppress
respiratory drive in chronic CO2 retainers.
Q6: During BVM ventilation, the EMT notes rising resistance and decreased chest rise. The EMT should
FIRST:
A. Increase ventilation rate
B. Reposition the airway and check mask seal [CORRECT]
,C. Insert an oropharyngeal airway
D. Begin chest compressions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Poor chest rise indicates inadequate ventilation, most commonly from improper head
position or mask seal. The EMT should reposition using head-tilt chin-lift or jaw thrust and ensure a
proper mask seal before other interventions.
Q7: End-tidal CO2 (EtCO2) measurement is MOST useful for confirming:
A. Blood glucose level
B. Proper endotracheal tube placement [CORRECT]
C. Blood pressure
D. Oxygen saturation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: EtCO2 detection confirms airway placement in the trachea (positive waveform) versus
esophageal intubation (no CO2). It also monitors ventilation effectiveness, perfusion, and metabolic
status. Normal EtCO2 is 35-45 mmHg.
Q8: A patient has stridor on inspiration. This indicates:
A. Lower airway obstruction
B. Upper airway obstruction [CORRECT]
C. Alveolar fluid
D. Pleural effusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Stridor (high-pitched sound on inspiration) indicates partial upper airway obstruction at the
larynx or trachea. Wheezing indicates lower airway obstruction. Stridor requires immediate airway
management as complete obstruction may develop.
Q9: Which pulse oximetry reading is MOST concerning?
A. 98% on room air
B. 95% on 2 L/min nasal cannula
C. 88% on 15 L/min non-rebreather [CORRECT]
D. 92% on 6 L/min simple mask
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: SpO2 88% despite maximum supplemental oxygen indicates severe hypoxemia and
, impending respiratory failure. This patient requires immediate ventilatory support and rapid transport.
Values above 90% on appropriate oxygen are less critical.
Q10: The jaw-thrust maneuver is indicated for:
A. All unconscious patients
B. Patients with suspected spinal injury [CORRECT]
C. Patients with intact gag reflex
D. Patients requiring suctioning
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Jaw thrust opens the airway without extending the neck, protecting the cervical spine in
trauma patients. Head-tilt chin-lift is contraindicated with suspected spinal injury. Both maneuvers may
trigger gagging in patients with intact reflexes.
Q11: A patient is apneic with a pulse. The EMT should:
A. Begin chest compressions
B. Provide artificial ventilation at 10-12 breaths/min [CORRECT]
C. Administer high-flow oxygen only
D. Wait for respiratory effort to return
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Apneic patients with a pulse require immediate artificial ventilation at 10-12 breaths/minute
(adult) using BVM. Chest compressions are for cardiac arrest. Oxygen alone is insufficient without
ventilation.
Q12: Suctioning should be limited to ____ seconds in an adult to prevent hypoxia.
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15 [CORRECT]
D. 30
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Adult suctioning should not exceed 15 seconds. Pediatric patients require shorter durations
(10 seconds) due to smaller oxygen reserves. Pre-oxygenation before suctioning reduces hypoxic risk.
Q13: A patient with carbon monoxide poisoning may have a normal pulse oximetry reading because:
A. CO binds to hemoglobin and is not detected [CORRECT]
