NUR 334 Final Exam: Pharmacology I V2 - Arizona College
Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with
Rationale
1. A patient is receiving digoxin for heart failure. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor most
closely to prevent digoxin toxicity?
A. Serum sodium levels
B. Serum calcium levels
C. Serum potassium levels
D. Serum magnesium levels
Ans: C
Explanation: Hypokalemia is a major risk factor for digoxin toxicity because low potassium increases
digoxin binding to the sodium-potassium ATPase pump. The nurse must ensure potassium levels remain
within the normal range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. Monitoring these levels helps prevent life-threatening
cardiac arrhythmias associated with toxicity. If potassium is low, the nurse should notify the provider
before administering the next dose. Proper electrolyte balance is critical for the safe administration of
cardiac glycosides.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer warfarin to a patient. Which laboratory result is used to determine the
correct dose of this medication?
A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
B. Platelet count
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
,Ans: A
Explanation: The INR is the standard laboratory value used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin
therapy. For most patients, a therapeutic INR range is between 2.0 and 3.0. This measurement ensures
that the blood is sufficiently anticoagulated without causing excessive bleeding risk. Warfarin works by
inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver. Dose adjustments are made specifically based
on the results of the INR test.
3. Which medication is considered the drug of choice for treating an acute asthma attack?
A. Salmeterol
B. Fluticasone
C. Albuterol
D. Montelukast
Ans: C
Explanation: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that provides rapid bronchodilation
during acute respiratory distress. It works by relaxing the smooth muscles of the airways to improve
airflow. This medication is referred to as a rescue inhaler and is not intended for long-term maintenance.
Patients should be taught to use this immediately when symptoms like wheezing occur. Other
medications listed are used for long-term control or prophylaxis rather than acute relief.
4. A patient is prescribed furosemide for pulmonary edema. The nurse should instruct the patient to
consume more of which of the following foods?
A. Red meat and poultry
B. White bread and pasta
C. Dairy products like milk
, D. Bananas and oranges
Ans: D
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes significant loss of potassium through urine
excretion. To prevent hypokalemia, patients are often encouraged to eat potassium-rich foods like
bananas, oranges, and spinach. Low potassium can lead to muscle weakness and dangerous cardiac
dysrhythmias. The nurse should also monitor the patient’s blood pressure and daily weight while on this
therapy. Teaching the patient about dietary adjustments is a key component of diuretic education.
5. What is the most common side effect associated with the use of ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Constipation
C. Tachycardia
D. Dry, nonproductive cough
Ans: D
Explanation: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, which can accumulate in the lungs
and cause a persistent cough. This side effect is a leading reason why patients may stop taking the
medication. If the cough becomes intolerable, the healthcare provider may switch the patient to an
Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB). This dry cough does not typically respond to cough suppressants
or antihistamines. Nurses should assess for this symptom during every follow-up visit.
6. A patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed regular insulin. When should the nurse expect the insulin to
reach its peak effect?
A. 15 to 30 minutes after injection
B. 12 to 24 hours after injection
Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with
Rationale
1. A patient is receiving digoxin for heart failure. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor most
closely to prevent digoxin toxicity?
A. Serum sodium levels
B. Serum calcium levels
C. Serum potassium levels
D. Serum magnesium levels
Ans: C
Explanation: Hypokalemia is a major risk factor for digoxin toxicity because low potassium increases
digoxin binding to the sodium-potassium ATPase pump. The nurse must ensure potassium levels remain
within the normal range of 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. Monitoring these levels helps prevent life-threatening
cardiac arrhythmias associated with toxicity. If potassium is low, the nurse should notify the provider
before administering the next dose. Proper electrolyte balance is critical for the safe administration of
cardiac glycosides.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer warfarin to a patient. Which laboratory result is used to determine the
correct dose of this medication?
A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
B. Platelet count
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
,Ans: A
Explanation: The INR is the standard laboratory value used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin
therapy. For most patients, a therapeutic INR range is between 2.0 and 3.0. This measurement ensures
that the blood is sufficiently anticoagulated without causing excessive bleeding risk. Warfarin works by
inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver. Dose adjustments are made specifically based
on the results of the INR test.
3. Which medication is considered the drug of choice for treating an acute asthma attack?
A. Salmeterol
B. Fluticasone
C. Albuterol
D. Montelukast
Ans: C
Explanation: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that provides rapid bronchodilation
during acute respiratory distress. It works by relaxing the smooth muscles of the airways to improve
airflow. This medication is referred to as a rescue inhaler and is not intended for long-term maintenance.
Patients should be taught to use this immediately when symptoms like wheezing occur. Other
medications listed are used for long-term control or prophylaxis rather than acute relief.
4. A patient is prescribed furosemide for pulmonary edema. The nurse should instruct the patient to
consume more of which of the following foods?
A. Red meat and poultry
B. White bread and pasta
C. Dairy products like milk
, D. Bananas and oranges
Ans: D
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes significant loss of potassium through urine
excretion. To prevent hypokalemia, patients are often encouraged to eat potassium-rich foods like
bananas, oranges, and spinach. Low potassium can lead to muscle weakness and dangerous cardiac
dysrhythmias. The nurse should also monitor the patient’s blood pressure and daily weight while on this
therapy. Teaching the patient about dietary adjustments is a key component of diuretic education.
5. What is the most common side effect associated with the use of ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Constipation
C. Tachycardia
D. Dry, nonproductive cough
Ans: D
Explanation: ACE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of bradykinin, which can accumulate in the lungs
and cause a persistent cough. This side effect is a leading reason why patients may stop taking the
medication. If the cough becomes intolerable, the healthcare provider may switch the patient to an
Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB). This dry cough does not typically respond to cough suppressants
or antihistamines. Nurses should assess for this symptom during every follow-up visit.
6. A patient with type 1 diabetes is prescribed regular insulin. When should the nurse expect the insulin to
reach its peak effect?
A. 15 to 30 minutes after injection
B. 12 to 24 hours after injection
