ATI CAPSTONE MATERNAL NEWBORN ASSESSMENT
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS () (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAMINATION | NCLEX-RN
PREPARATION | GRADED A+
EXAM OVERVIEW
This comprehensive practice examination is designed for nursing students preparing for the ATI
Capstone Maternal Newborn Assessment for the 2026/2027 academic year. The ATI Capstone
assessment evaluates nursing students' mastery of essential maternal-newborn nursing
concepts prior to graduation and NCLEX-RN licensure examination.
Assessment Information:
Assessment Type: ATI Capstone Proctored Assessment – Maternal Newborn
Target Audience: Pre-licensure nursing students completing capstone experience
Content Alignment: ATI Capstone content, NCLEX-RN test plan (Maternal Newborn nursing)
Question Format: Multiple-choice, select-all-that-apply, scenario-based
Key Topics: Antepartum, Intrapartum, Postpartum, Newborn, High-Risk Conditions
Section 1: Antepartum Nursing Care (Questions 1-35)
Q1: A nurse is providing education to a client at her first prenatal visit. Which folic acid
supplementation dosage is recommended to reduce the risk of neural tube defects?
A. 100 mcg daily
B. 400-800 mcg daily
C. 1000-2000 mcg daily
D. 5 mg daily for all pregnant women
[CORRECT] B. 400-800 mcg daily
Rationale:
The CDC and ACOG recommend 400-800 mcg daily of folic acid for all women of childbearing
age to reduce neural tube defects (spina bifida, anencephaly).
Higher doses (4-5 mg) are reserved for high-risk populations (previous NTD-affected pregnancy,
certain anticonvulsant use).
,100 mcg is insufficient; 1000-2000 mcg is not the standard recommendation for general
population.
Q2: A nurse is teaching a client about danger signs during pregnancy. Which findings should be
reported to the provider immediately? (Select all that apply)
A. Vaginal bleeding
B. Severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen
C. Blurred vision
D. Epigastric pain
E. Occasional mild nausea in the morning
F. Mild ankle edema in the evening
[CORRECT] A, B, C, D
Rationale:
Danger signs requiring immediate notification include vaginal bleeding, severe headache,
blurred vision, epigastric pain (possible preeclampsia), oliguria, fever >100.4°F, persistent
vomiting, and signs of preterm labor.
Occasional mild morning nausea and mild dependent edema are normal physiological changes
of pregnancy.
These danger signs may indicate preeclampsia, placental abruption, or other serious
complications.
Q3: A nurse is providing education to a client experiencing first-trimester nausea and vomiting.
Which interventions should the nurse recommend? (Select all that apply)
A. Eat three large meals daily
B. Drink fluids between meals rather than with meals
C. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed
D. Lie down immediately after eating
E. Take vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) 25 mg every 6-8 hours as recommended
F. Consume ginger-containing foods or supplements
[CORRECT] B, C, E, F
,Rationale:
Small, frequent meals (not large meals) are recommended; fluids should be taken between
meals to avoid stomach distention.
Dry crackers before rising helps absorb gastric acid.
Vitamin B6 (25 mg q6-8h) and ginger are evidence-based interventions for nausea/vomiting of
pregnancy.
Lying down immediately after eating may worsen reflux and nausea.
Q4: A nurse is calculating a client's estimated date of birth (EDB) using Naegele's rule. The
client's last menstrual period (LMP) was August 15, 2026. What is the estimated date of birth?
A. May 8, 2027
B. May 15, 2027
C. May 22, 2027
D. June 1, 2027
[CORRECT] C. May 22, 2027
Rationale:
Naegele's rule: LMP + 7 days – 3 months + 1 year.
August 15 + 7 days = August 22; August 22 – 3 months = May 22; + 1 year = 2027.
This calculation assumes a 28-day cycle; adjustments may be needed for irregular cycles.
Q5: A nurse is assessing a client at 24 weeks gestation. The fundal height measures 22 cm. What
is the nurse's most appropriate action?
A. Document as normal finding
B. Notify the provider immediately
C. Prepare for ultrasound immediately
D. Instruct client to increase fluid intake and reassess in 1 week
[CORRECT] A. Document as normal finding
Rationale:
McDonald's rule: Fundal height (cm) should equal weeks gestation ±2 cm between 18-32 weeks.
, 24 weeks ±2 cm = 22-26 cm; therefore, 22 cm is within normal limits.
Notification is required for discrepancies >2-3 cm or decreasing measurements.
Q6: A nurse is providing education to a client about the glucose challenge test (GCT) for
gestational diabetes screening. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A. "I will need to fast for 8 hours before the test."
B. "I will drink 50g of glucose and have my blood drawn in 1 hour."
C. "If my result is above 200 mg/dL, it is considered normal."
D. "This test is typically performed at 12-16 weeks gestation."
[CORRECT] B. "I will drink 50g of glucose and have my blood drawn in 1 hour."
Rationale:
The GCT involves a 50g glucose load with a 1-hour plasma glucose measurement; no fasting is
required.
Threshold for further testing is typically 130-140 mg/dL (varies by facility), not 200 mg/dL.
Routine screening occurs at 24-28 weeks; early screening is for high-risk clients only.
Q7: A nurse is caring for a client who is Rh-negative. Which scenario indicates the need for
RhoGAM administration at 28 weeks gestation?
A. Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-negative
B. Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-positive or unknown
C. Mother Rh-positive, father Rh-negative
D. Mother Rh-positive, father Rh-positive
[CORRECT] B. Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-positive or unknown
Rationale:
RhoGAM (Rh immunoglobulin) prevents sensitization in Rh-negative mothers who may carry an
Rh-positive fetus (when father is Rh-positive or unknown).
Given at 28 weeks and within 72 hours postpartum if infant is Rh-positive.
No RhoGAM needed if both parents are Rh-negative (fetus must be Rh-negative).
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS () (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
COMPREHENSIVE PRACTICE EXAMINATION | NCLEX-RN
PREPARATION | GRADED A+
EXAM OVERVIEW
This comprehensive practice examination is designed for nursing students preparing for the ATI
Capstone Maternal Newborn Assessment for the 2026/2027 academic year. The ATI Capstone
assessment evaluates nursing students' mastery of essential maternal-newborn nursing
concepts prior to graduation and NCLEX-RN licensure examination.
Assessment Information:
Assessment Type: ATI Capstone Proctored Assessment – Maternal Newborn
Target Audience: Pre-licensure nursing students completing capstone experience
Content Alignment: ATI Capstone content, NCLEX-RN test plan (Maternal Newborn nursing)
Question Format: Multiple-choice, select-all-that-apply, scenario-based
Key Topics: Antepartum, Intrapartum, Postpartum, Newborn, High-Risk Conditions
Section 1: Antepartum Nursing Care (Questions 1-35)
Q1: A nurse is providing education to a client at her first prenatal visit. Which folic acid
supplementation dosage is recommended to reduce the risk of neural tube defects?
A. 100 mcg daily
B. 400-800 mcg daily
C. 1000-2000 mcg daily
D. 5 mg daily for all pregnant women
[CORRECT] B. 400-800 mcg daily
Rationale:
The CDC and ACOG recommend 400-800 mcg daily of folic acid for all women of childbearing
age to reduce neural tube defects (spina bifida, anencephaly).
Higher doses (4-5 mg) are reserved for high-risk populations (previous NTD-affected pregnancy,
certain anticonvulsant use).
,100 mcg is insufficient; 1000-2000 mcg is not the standard recommendation for general
population.
Q2: A nurse is teaching a client about danger signs during pregnancy. Which findings should be
reported to the provider immediately? (Select all that apply)
A. Vaginal bleeding
B. Severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen
C. Blurred vision
D. Epigastric pain
E. Occasional mild nausea in the morning
F. Mild ankle edema in the evening
[CORRECT] A, B, C, D
Rationale:
Danger signs requiring immediate notification include vaginal bleeding, severe headache,
blurred vision, epigastric pain (possible preeclampsia), oliguria, fever >100.4°F, persistent
vomiting, and signs of preterm labor.
Occasional mild morning nausea and mild dependent edema are normal physiological changes
of pregnancy.
These danger signs may indicate preeclampsia, placental abruption, or other serious
complications.
Q3: A nurse is providing education to a client experiencing first-trimester nausea and vomiting.
Which interventions should the nurse recommend? (Select all that apply)
A. Eat three large meals daily
B. Drink fluids between meals rather than with meals
C. Eat dry crackers before getting out of bed
D. Lie down immediately after eating
E. Take vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) 25 mg every 6-8 hours as recommended
F. Consume ginger-containing foods or supplements
[CORRECT] B, C, E, F
,Rationale:
Small, frequent meals (not large meals) are recommended; fluids should be taken between
meals to avoid stomach distention.
Dry crackers before rising helps absorb gastric acid.
Vitamin B6 (25 mg q6-8h) and ginger are evidence-based interventions for nausea/vomiting of
pregnancy.
Lying down immediately after eating may worsen reflux and nausea.
Q4: A nurse is calculating a client's estimated date of birth (EDB) using Naegele's rule. The
client's last menstrual period (LMP) was August 15, 2026. What is the estimated date of birth?
A. May 8, 2027
B. May 15, 2027
C. May 22, 2027
D. June 1, 2027
[CORRECT] C. May 22, 2027
Rationale:
Naegele's rule: LMP + 7 days – 3 months + 1 year.
August 15 + 7 days = August 22; August 22 – 3 months = May 22; + 1 year = 2027.
This calculation assumes a 28-day cycle; adjustments may be needed for irregular cycles.
Q5: A nurse is assessing a client at 24 weeks gestation. The fundal height measures 22 cm. What
is the nurse's most appropriate action?
A. Document as normal finding
B. Notify the provider immediately
C. Prepare for ultrasound immediately
D. Instruct client to increase fluid intake and reassess in 1 week
[CORRECT] A. Document as normal finding
Rationale:
McDonald's rule: Fundal height (cm) should equal weeks gestation ±2 cm between 18-32 weeks.
, 24 weeks ±2 cm = 22-26 cm; therefore, 22 cm is within normal limits.
Notification is required for discrepancies >2-3 cm or decreasing measurements.
Q6: A nurse is providing education to a client about the glucose challenge test (GCT) for
gestational diabetes screening. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A. "I will need to fast for 8 hours before the test."
B. "I will drink 50g of glucose and have my blood drawn in 1 hour."
C. "If my result is above 200 mg/dL, it is considered normal."
D. "This test is typically performed at 12-16 weeks gestation."
[CORRECT] B. "I will drink 50g of glucose and have my blood drawn in 1 hour."
Rationale:
The GCT involves a 50g glucose load with a 1-hour plasma glucose measurement; no fasting is
required.
Threshold for further testing is typically 130-140 mg/dL (varies by facility), not 200 mg/dL.
Routine screening occurs at 24-28 weeks; early screening is for high-risk clients only.
Q7: A nurse is caring for a client who is Rh-negative. Which scenario indicates the need for
RhoGAM administration at 28 weeks gestation?
A. Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-negative
B. Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-positive or unknown
C. Mother Rh-positive, father Rh-negative
D. Mother Rh-positive, father Rh-positive
[CORRECT] B. Mother Rh-negative, father Rh-positive or unknown
Rationale:
RhoGAM (Rh immunoglobulin) prevents sensitization in Rh-negative mothers who may carry an
Rh-positive fetus (when father is Rh-positive or unknown).
Given at 28 weeks and within 72 hours postpartum if infant is Rh-positive.
No RhoGAM needed if both parents are Rh-negative (fetus must be Rh-negative).
