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NURS 3365 – Pharmacology EXAM 2 ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS LATEST
UPDATE THIS YEAR – JUST RELEASED
NURS 3365 – Pharmacology EXAM 2 (100 MCQs)
Antibiotics & Anti-infectives
1. A patient is prescribed penicillin G IV. Which adverse reaction requires immediate action?
A) Nausea
B) Diarrhea
C) Wheezing and hypotension
D) Headache
Answer: C
Rationale: Wheezing and hypotension indicate anaphylaxis, a life-threatening allergic reaction.
Nausea and diarrhea are common but not immediately life-threatening.
2. The nurse should instruct a patient taking tetracycline to avoid:
A) Grapefruit juice
B) Dairy products
C) Leafy green vegetables
D) High-protein foods
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Answer: B
Rationale: Dairy products, antacids, and iron supplements bind with tetracycline, reducing
absorption. Take on an empty stomach.
3. A patient on vancomycin reports ringing in the ears. The nurse’s priority action is:
A) Administer acetaminophen
B) Hold the next dose and notify the provider
C) Flush the IV line with saline
D) Reassure the patient that this is normal
Answer: B
Rationale: Tinnitus is an early sign of ototoxicity (vancomycin side effect). The drug should be
held and levels checked.
4. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely in a patient receiving gentamicin?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Platelets
C) Serum creatinine
D) Thyroid stimulating hormone
Answer: C
Rationale: Gentamicin (an aminoglycoside) causes nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Monitor serum
creatinine and BUN for kidney damage.
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5. A patient with a sulfa allergy should not receive:
A) Penicillin G
B) Doxycycline
C) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
D) Azithromycin
Answer: C
Rationale: Bactrim contains sulfamethoxazole. Cross-sensitivity in patients with sulfa allergy can
cause severe rash, SJS, or anaphylaxis.
6. A nurse is administering cefazolin. Which statement by the patient is most concerning?
A) “I have a rash when I took amoxicillin.”
B) “I had hives after penicillin.”
C) “I took cephalexin before with no problem.”
D) “My mother is allergic to sulfa.”
Answer: B
Rationale: There is cross-allergy between penicillins and cephalosporins (about 1-10%). Hives
indicate true allergy. Amoxicillin rash may be non-allergic.
7. The nurse teaches a patient taking metronidazole (Flagyl) to avoid:
A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
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C) Grapefruit
D) Bananas
Answer: B
*Rationale: Metronidazole + alcohol causes a disulfiram-like reaction (severe nausea, vomiting,
flushing, headache). Avoid alcohol during and for 48 hours after.*
8. Which antibiotic is associated with red-man syndrome if infused too rapidly?
A) Gentamicin
B) Vancomycin
C) Levofloxacin
D) Clindamycin
Answer: B
Rationale: Red-man syndrome (flushing, rash, hypotension) occurs with rapid IV vancomycin
infusion. Infuse over at least 60 minutes.
9. A patient on isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis should be monitored for:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Peripheral neuropathy
C) Diarrhea
D) Hypertension
NURS 3365 – Pharmacology EXAM 2 ACTUAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS LATEST
UPDATE THIS YEAR – JUST RELEASED
NURS 3365 – Pharmacology EXAM 2 (100 MCQs)
Antibiotics & Anti-infectives
1. A patient is prescribed penicillin G IV. Which adverse reaction requires immediate action?
A) Nausea
B) Diarrhea
C) Wheezing and hypotension
D) Headache
Answer: C
Rationale: Wheezing and hypotension indicate anaphylaxis, a life-threatening allergic reaction.
Nausea and diarrhea are common but not immediately life-threatening.
2. The nurse should instruct a patient taking tetracycline to avoid:
A) Grapefruit juice
B) Dairy products
C) Leafy green vegetables
D) High-protein foods
, Page 2 of 90
Answer: B
Rationale: Dairy products, antacids, and iron supplements bind with tetracycline, reducing
absorption. Take on an empty stomach.
3. A patient on vancomycin reports ringing in the ears. The nurse’s priority action is:
A) Administer acetaminophen
B) Hold the next dose and notify the provider
C) Flush the IV line with saline
D) Reassure the patient that this is normal
Answer: B
Rationale: Tinnitus is an early sign of ototoxicity (vancomycin side effect). The drug should be
held and levels checked.
4. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely in a patient receiving gentamicin?
A) Hemoglobin
B) Platelets
C) Serum creatinine
D) Thyroid stimulating hormone
Answer: C
Rationale: Gentamicin (an aminoglycoside) causes nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. Monitor serum
creatinine and BUN for kidney damage.
, Page 3 of 90
5. A patient with a sulfa allergy should not receive:
A) Penicillin G
B) Doxycycline
C) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
D) Azithromycin
Answer: C
Rationale: Bactrim contains sulfamethoxazole. Cross-sensitivity in patients with sulfa allergy can
cause severe rash, SJS, or anaphylaxis.
6. A nurse is administering cefazolin. Which statement by the patient is most concerning?
A) “I have a rash when I took amoxicillin.”
B) “I had hives after penicillin.”
C) “I took cephalexin before with no problem.”
D) “My mother is allergic to sulfa.”
Answer: B
Rationale: There is cross-allergy between penicillins and cephalosporins (about 1-10%). Hives
indicate true allergy. Amoxicillin rash may be non-allergic.
7. The nurse teaches a patient taking metronidazole (Flagyl) to avoid:
A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
, Page 4 of 90
C) Grapefruit
D) Bananas
Answer: B
*Rationale: Metronidazole + alcohol causes a disulfiram-like reaction (severe nausea, vomiting,
flushing, headache). Avoid alcohol during and for 48 hours after.*
8. Which antibiotic is associated with red-man syndrome if infused too rapidly?
A) Gentamicin
B) Vancomycin
C) Levofloxacin
D) Clindamycin
Answer: B
Rationale: Red-man syndrome (flushing, rash, hypotension) occurs with rapid IV vancomycin
infusion. Infuse over at least 60 minutes.
9. A patient on isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis should be monitored for:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Peripheral neuropathy
C) Diarrhea
D) Hypertension
