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ScribeAmerica Final Exam 100+ (Fully Updated 2026) Exam Questions + Verified & Rationalized Answers A+ Graded

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ScribeAmerica Final Exam 100+ (Fully Updated 2026) Exam Questions + Verified & Rationalized Answers A+ Graded

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SCRIBEAMERICA FINAL EXAM
100+ (Fully Updated 2026) Exam Questions + Verified & Rationalized
Answers | A+ Graded


100% Guarantee Pass



📋 DOCUMENT OVERVIEW 100 Qs



This document, "ScribeAmerica Final Exam," covers various nursing topics, including diagnosis and
treatment of conditions such as urinary tract infections, lacerations, and altered mental status, as well as
medical terminology and documentation practices. It provides a comprehensive review of maternal
newborn nursing concepts, including pregnancy, childbirth, and postpartum care, with 100 questions
along with correct answers and detailed explanations. Students can use this document to study, review,
and understand key concepts, making it a valuable resource for exam preparation and nursing education.


✓ Verified Answers ✓ Exam Ready ✓ Study Guide




Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide




EXAM QUESTIONS


QUESTION 1

A patient is seen in the emergency department complaining of dysuria and tells you that she is 23
weeks pregnant. Your doctor diagnoses her with a UTI. Which of the following would be the best
diagnosis?

CORRECT ANSWER

acute urinary tract infection in pregnancy, 2nd trimester



RATIONALE: The correct answer is "acute urinary tract infection in pregnancy, 2nd trimester" because the patient's
symptoms of dysuria, combined with her pregnancy status, indicate a UTI that requires consideration of potential
pregnancy-related complications. This diagnosis takes into account the patient's gestational age, as the second trimester
is a critical period of fetal development, and an undiagnosed UTI could pose risks to both the mother and the fetus.



QUESTION 2

A patient cut his left foot on a piece of glass two hours ago and is seen in the emergency department
to have sutures placed. The doctor tells you there is no tendon injury and circulatory, sensory and
motor is intact. What is the best diagnosis for his complaint?

CORRECT ANSWER

Uncomplicated laceration of the left foot - initial encounter



Trusted by thousands of students and professionals worldwide Page 1 of 33

, RATIONALE: This diagnosis is correct because it accurately reflects the patient's initial presentation with a traumatic
injury that required medical intervention, specifically sutures, without any complications or underlying conditions. The
use of "initial encounter" indicates that this is the first time the patient has sought medical attention for this specific
injury, making it the most appropriate choice for this scenario.



QUESTION 3

What does AMS stand for?

CORRECT ANSWER

altered mental status



RATIONALE: AMS stands for Altered Mental Status, which refers to a change in a person's cognitive, emotional, or
behavioral functioning, often caused by underlying medical conditions or injuries. In medical contexts, AMS is a crucial
term used to describe a range of abnormal mental states, from mild confusion to coma, prompting healthcare
professionals to investigate and address the underlying causes.



QUESTION 4

What does GCS stand for?

CORRECT ANSWER

glasgow coma scale


RATIONALE: The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is the correct answer because it is a well-established medical assessment
tool used to evaluate a patient's level of consciousness following a brain injury, which is named after the Royal Infirmary
of Glasgow, Scotland, where it was first developed. The GCS measures a patient's eye, verbal, and motor responses to
provide a reliable and widely accepted indicator of brain function.



QUESTION 5
What does DNR stand for?

CORRECT ANSWER

do not resuscitate


RATIONALE: The term "DNR" is derived from the phrase "Do Not Resuscitate," which indicates a medical directive that
specifies not to perform life-saving interventions, such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation, in the event of cardiac arrest or
other life-threatening situations. This phrase is used in medical contexts to convey the patient's or their representative's
wishes regarding end-of-life care and emergency response.



QUESTION 6

What does AAA stand for?

CORRECT ANSWER

abdominal aortic aneurysm




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, RATIONALE: "Abdominal aortic aneurysm" is the correct answer because the term "AAA" specifically refers to an
aneurysm that occurs in the abdominal portion of the aorta, which is the main artery in the body. This acronym is
commonly used in medical contexts to describe this condition, making it the most accurate and relevant interpretation of
the abbreviation.



QUESTION 7

What does PE stand for in the diagnosis section of the chart?

CORRECT ANSWER

pulmonary embolism


RATIONALE: The abbreviation "PE" in the diagnosis section of a chart stands for "pulmonary embolism" because it refers
to a blockage of an artery in the lung caused by a blood clot, which is a serious medical condition. This term is
commonly used in medical documentation to indicate a diagnosis of a pulmonary embolism, a condition that requires
immediate medical attention.



QUESTION 8

What does DP stand for in "DP pulse"?

CORRECT ANSWER

dorsalis pedis


RATIONALE: The term "DP pulse" refers to the pulse felt at the dorsalis pedis artery, which is a superficial artery located
on the top of the foot. The "DP" in "DP pulse" is derived from the Latin term "dorsalis pedis," meaning the top of the
foot, indicating the location where this pulse is typically assessed.



QUESTION 9
What does DVT stand for?

CORRECT ANSWER

deep vein thrombosis


RATIONALE: "DVT" is the abbreviation for "Deep Vein Thrombosis" because it specifically refers to a medical condition
where a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the legs. The term "DVT" accurately represents the condition's
definition and medical context, making it the correct interpretation of the abbreviation.



QUESTION 10

What does NTG stand for?

CORRECT ANSWER

nitroglycerin


RATIONALE: NTG stands for nitroglycerin because it is a common abbreviation used in medical contexts to refer to the
medication, which is a vasodilator used to treat angina and other heart conditions. This abbreviation is widely accepted
in the medical field and is often used by healthcare professionals to refer to the medication in a concise and efficient
manner.




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, QUESTION 11

What does URI stand for?

CORRECT ANSWER

upper respiratory infection


RATIONALE: The acronym URI refers to a broad category of illnesses that affect the upper part of the respiratory
system, encompassing the nose, throat, and lungs. This classification is based on the anatomical location of the
infection, distinguishing it from lower respiratory infections that affect the lungs.



QUESTION 12

What does CHF stand for?

CORRECT ANSWER

congestive heart failure



RATIONALE: The term "congestive" refers to the accumulation of fluid in the body, particularly in the lungs and limbs,
which is a hallmark symptom of heart failure. This is why "congestive heart failure" accurately describes the condition,
making it the correct interpretation of the acronym CHF.



QUESTION 13

What does s/p stand for?

CORRECT ANSWER

status post


RATIONALE: In medical and scientific writing, abbreviations like "s/p" are used to shorten long phrases, and the full form
"status post" is used to describe a condition or situation that has occurred before the current point in time. The use of
"s/p" as an abbreviation for "status post" is a common convention in these fields, allowing for concise and clear
communication of complex information.



QUESTION 14

What does GERD stand for?

CORRECT ANSWER

gastroesophageal reflux disease


RATIONALE: GERD stands for Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease because it specifically refers to a condition where
stomach acid flows back up into the esophagus, causing discomfort. The term "Gastroesophageal" directly relates to the
gastroesophageal junction, which is the area where the stomach and esophagus meet, making it the correct expansion
of the acronym.



QUESTION 15

What does EOMI stand for?

CORRECT ANSWER

extraocular movements intact




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