ASCP Board of Certification MLT Computer Adaptive
Practice Test 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
COVERING THE RECENT TESTED QUESTIONS
GUARANTEE HIGH PASSMARK
Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B:
A: Core Antigen
B: Surface antigen
C: e antigen
D: Delta antigen
**This is a Level 4 Question** - correct answer -B
Which of the following organisms is BEST VISUALIZED by use of a darkfield microscope?
A: Poxviridae
B: Entamoeba
C: Borrelia
D: Streptococcus
**This is a Level 5 Question** - correct answer -C
What is the MOST LIKELY cause of the ABO discrepancy when the following results were obtained
from a first-time 29-year-old, blood donor?
Forward: Anti-A = Negative; Anti-B = Negative
Reverse: A1 cells = Negative; B cells = 3+
A: Loss of antigen due to disease
B: Acquired B
C: Low immunoglobulin levels
D: Weak subgroup of A
**This is a Level 4 Question** - correct answer -D
,An aerobic Gram-Negative coccobacillus was isolated from a nasopharyngeal swab 48 hours after
culture from a 6-month-old with the following culture characteristics on Bordet-Gengou agar:
Small zone of Beta-hemolysis
Urease: Positive (24hrs)
Oxidase: Negative
Motility: Negative
The MOST probable ID of this isolate is:
A: Pasteurella multocida
B: Bordetella pertussis
C: Bordetella parapertussis
D: Bordetella bronchiseptica
**This is a Level 8 Question** - correct answer -C
Disorders in which coarse basophilic stippling can be seen are in all of the following except?
A: Polycythemia
B: Thalassemia
C: Disorders of abnormal heme synthesis
D: Lead poisoning
**This is a Level 5 Question** - correct answer -A
Which of the following statements concerning Tamm-Horsfall protein is FALSE?
A: It is the protein that is predominantly detected by a urine reagent strip test
B: Hyaline casts are formed by this protein in the distal tubule
C: It acts as a coating & lubricant in the tubules
D: It is produced by the tubules
**This is a Level 4 Question** - correct answer -A
All the following are reasons for conducting compatibility testing EXCEPT:
,A: Prevent recipient alloimmunization
B: Verify ABO & Rh
C: Select proper blood products
D: Detect antibodies against donor cells
**This is a Level 6 Question** - correct answer -A
The historical medium of choice for isolation of Francisella is:
A: Chocolate agar
B: Cysteine blood glucose agar
C: Modified Thayer-Martin agar
D: MacConkey agar
**This is a Level 4 Question** - correct answer -B
To screen for UTIs, leukocyte esterase results should be evaluated along with the results from which
of these other reagent strip tests?
A: Urobilinogen
B: Bilirubin
C: Nitrite
D: Glucose
**This is a Level 2 Question** - correct answer -C
The process of freeze-drying of bacteria is called:
A: Agglutination
B: Inhibition
C: Lyophilization
D: Precipitation
**This is a Level 2 Question** - correct answer -C
, The following diagram demonstrates 2 SPEP patterns from different patients. The pattern on the left
is from a normal, healthy patient. The pattern on the right is from a patient with a particular disorder.
What abnormality is suggested by the pattern on the right?
A: Alpha-1-antitrysin deficiency
B: X-linked agammaglobulinemia
C: Nephrotic syndrome
D: Acute inflammation
**This is a Level 2 Question** - correct answer -B
When administering FFP, which one of the following is considered standard blood bank practice?
A: Should be ABO compatible with the recipient's RBCs
B: Must be the same Rh type as the patient
C: Is appropriate for use as a volume expander
D: Component should remain frozen when it is issued
**This is a Level 3 Question** - correct answer -A
In which of the following conditions would you NOT except to find HJ bodies?
A: Sickle cell anemia
B: Iron deficiency anemia
C: Post splenectomy
D: Megaloblastic anemia
**This is a Level 5 Question** - correct answer -B
Antibodies of which of the following immunoglobulins subclasses is predominantly associated with
the secondary antibody response?
A: IgA
B: IgD
C: IgG
D: IgM
**This is a Level 2 Question** - correct answer -C
Practice Test 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
COVERING THE RECENT TESTED QUESTIONS
GUARANTEE HIGH PASSMARK
Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B:
A: Core Antigen
B: Surface antigen
C: e antigen
D: Delta antigen
**This is a Level 4 Question** - correct answer -B
Which of the following organisms is BEST VISUALIZED by use of a darkfield microscope?
A: Poxviridae
B: Entamoeba
C: Borrelia
D: Streptococcus
**This is a Level 5 Question** - correct answer -C
What is the MOST LIKELY cause of the ABO discrepancy when the following results were obtained
from a first-time 29-year-old, blood donor?
Forward: Anti-A = Negative; Anti-B = Negative
Reverse: A1 cells = Negative; B cells = 3+
A: Loss of antigen due to disease
B: Acquired B
C: Low immunoglobulin levels
D: Weak subgroup of A
**This is a Level 4 Question** - correct answer -D
,An aerobic Gram-Negative coccobacillus was isolated from a nasopharyngeal swab 48 hours after
culture from a 6-month-old with the following culture characteristics on Bordet-Gengou agar:
Small zone of Beta-hemolysis
Urease: Positive (24hrs)
Oxidase: Negative
Motility: Negative
The MOST probable ID of this isolate is:
A: Pasteurella multocida
B: Bordetella pertussis
C: Bordetella parapertussis
D: Bordetella bronchiseptica
**This is a Level 8 Question** - correct answer -C
Disorders in which coarse basophilic stippling can be seen are in all of the following except?
A: Polycythemia
B: Thalassemia
C: Disorders of abnormal heme synthesis
D: Lead poisoning
**This is a Level 5 Question** - correct answer -A
Which of the following statements concerning Tamm-Horsfall protein is FALSE?
A: It is the protein that is predominantly detected by a urine reagent strip test
B: Hyaline casts are formed by this protein in the distal tubule
C: It acts as a coating & lubricant in the tubules
D: It is produced by the tubules
**This is a Level 4 Question** - correct answer -A
All the following are reasons for conducting compatibility testing EXCEPT:
,A: Prevent recipient alloimmunization
B: Verify ABO & Rh
C: Select proper blood products
D: Detect antibodies against donor cells
**This is a Level 6 Question** - correct answer -A
The historical medium of choice for isolation of Francisella is:
A: Chocolate agar
B: Cysteine blood glucose agar
C: Modified Thayer-Martin agar
D: MacConkey agar
**This is a Level 4 Question** - correct answer -B
To screen for UTIs, leukocyte esterase results should be evaluated along with the results from which
of these other reagent strip tests?
A: Urobilinogen
B: Bilirubin
C: Nitrite
D: Glucose
**This is a Level 2 Question** - correct answer -C
The process of freeze-drying of bacteria is called:
A: Agglutination
B: Inhibition
C: Lyophilization
D: Precipitation
**This is a Level 2 Question** - correct answer -C
, The following diagram demonstrates 2 SPEP patterns from different patients. The pattern on the left
is from a normal, healthy patient. The pattern on the right is from a patient with a particular disorder.
What abnormality is suggested by the pattern on the right?
A: Alpha-1-antitrysin deficiency
B: X-linked agammaglobulinemia
C: Nephrotic syndrome
D: Acute inflammation
**This is a Level 2 Question** - correct answer -B
When administering FFP, which one of the following is considered standard blood bank practice?
A: Should be ABO compatible with the recipient's RBCs
B: Must be the same Rh type as the patient
C: Is appropriate for use as a volume expander
D: Component should remain frozen when it is issued
**This is a Level 3 Question** - correct answer -A
In which of the following conditions would you NOT except to find HJ bodies?
A: Sickle cell anemia
B: Iron deficiency anemia
C: Post splenectomy
D: Megaloblastic anemia
**This is a Level 5 Question** - correct answer -B
Antibodies of which of the following immunoglobulins subclasses is predominantly associated with
the secondary antibody response?
A: IgA
B: IgD
C: IgG
D: IgM
**This is a Level 2 Question** - correct answer -C
