NUR 335 Final Exam: Maternal Health Theory &
Application V1 - Arizona College Updated and Latest
Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale
1. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery using Naegele’s rule for a client whose last menstrual
period began on March 10th. Which date is correct?
A. December 17th
B. December 3rd
C. January 10th
D. December 10th
Ans: A
Explanation: Naegele’s rule requires subtracting three months from the first day of the last menstrual
period. After subtracting three months from March, the nurse then adds seven days to the day of the
month. In this specific scenario, adding seven days to March 10th results in the 17th day. Finally, the year
is adjusted forward by one year if necessary to complete the calculation. This method provides a
standardized way to estimate the expected date of birth for prenatal planning.
2. Which of the following is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive serum pregnancy test
C. Fetal heart tones heard by Doppler
D. Chadwick’s sign
Ans: C
,Explanation: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can only be attributed to the presence of a fetus.
Hearing fetal heart tones is a definitive objective finding that confirms a viable pregnancy exists. Other
signs like amenorrhea are merely presumptive because they can be caused by various medical
conditions. Probable signs like a positive pregnancy test suggest pregnancy but are not 100% diagnostic
due to potential cross-reactions. Nurses must distinguish between these categories to provide accurate
clinical information to the patient.
3. A client at 32 weeks gestation reports a headache and blurred vision. What is the priority assessment?
A. Assess blood pressure
B. Perform a fundal height measurement
C. Check for peripheral edema
D. Test for deep tendon reflexes
Ans: A
Explanation: Headache and blurred vision are classic warning signs of preeclampsia in a third-trimester
client. Assessing blood pressure is the first step in identifying a hypertensive crisis or worsening disease.
Elevated blood pressure combined with these symptoms requires immediate medical intervention to
prevent seizures. While edema and reflexes are important, the blood pressure reading provides the most
critical diagnostic data point. Nurses must prioritize physiological stability and safety when these
neurological symptoms are reported.
4. Which medication is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?
A. Naloxone
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Terbutaline
, D. Oxytocin
Ans: B
Explanation: Magnesium sulfate is commonly used to prevent seizures in patients with severe
preeclampsia. If a patient shows signs of toxicity, such as loss of reflexes, calcium gluconate must be
administered. This medication works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium at the neuromuscular
junction. Nurses should always have this antidote readily available at the bedside during magnesium
infusions. Careful monitoring of respiratory rate and urine output is also essential to detect toxicity early.
5. A nurse observes a fetal heart rate pattern with late decelerations. What is the immediate nursing
action?
A. Increase the oxytocin infusion rate
B. Place the client in a supine position
C. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask
D. Perform a vaginal exam to check for dilation
Ans: C
Explanation: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which is a significant concern for
fetal oxygenation. The nurse must immediately implement intrauterine resuscitation measures to
improve blood flow to the placenta. Administering oxygen at 8 to 10 liters per minute helps maximize the
oxygen available to the fetus. Additionally, the nurse should turn the mother to her side to relieve
pressure on the vena cava. Documenting the event and notifying the provider are necessary steps after
stabilizing the patient.
6. What is the primary purpose of administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)?
A. To treat jaundice in the newborn
Application V1 - Arizona College Updated and Latest
Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale
1. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery using Naegele’s rule for a client whose last menstrual
period began on March 10th. Which date is correct?
A. December 17th
B. December 3rd
C. January 10th
D. December 10th
Ans: A
Explanation: Naegele’s rule requires subtracting three months from the first day of the last menstrual
period. After subtracting three months from March, the nurse then adds seven days to the day of the
month. In this specific scenario, adding seven days to March 10th results in the 17th day. Finally, the year
is adjusted forward by one year if necessary to complete the calculation. This method provides a
standardized way to estimate the expected date of birth for prenatal planning.
2. Which of the following is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Positive serum pregnancy test
C. Fetal heart tones heard by Doppler
D. Chadwick’s sign
Ans: C
,Explanation: Positive signs of pregnancy are those that can only be attributed to the presence of a fetus.
Hearing fetal heart tones is a definitive objective finding that confirms a viable pregnancy exists. Other
signs like amenorrhea are merely presumptive because they can be caused by various medical
conditions. Probable signs like a positive pregnancy test suggest pregnancy but are not 100% diagnostic
due to potential cross-reactions. Nurses must distinguish between these categories to provide accurate
clinical information to the patient.
3. A client at 32 weeks gestation reports a headache and blurred vision. What is the priority assessment?
A. Assess blood pressure
B. Perform a fundal height measurement
C. Check for peripheral edema
D. Test for deep tendon reflexes
Ans: A
Explanation: Headache and blurred vision are classic warning signs of preeclampsia in a third-trimester
client. Assessing blood pressure is the first step in identifying a hypertensive crisis or worsening disease.
Elevated blood pressure combined with these symptoms requires immediate medical intervention to
prevent seizures. While edema and reflexes are important, the blood pressure reading provides the most
critical diagnostic data point. Nurses must prioritize physiological stability and safety when these
neurological symptoms are reported.
4. Which medication is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity?
A. Naloxone
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Terbutaline
, D. Oxytocin
Ans: B
Explanation: Magnesium sulfate is commonly used to prevent seizures in patients with severe
preeclampsia. If a patient shows signs of toxicity, such as loss of reflexes, calcium gluconate must be
administered. This medication works by antagonizing the effects of magnesium at the neuromuscular
junction. Nurses should always have this antidote readily available at the bedside during magnesium
infusions. Careful monitoring of respiratory rate and urine output is also essential to detect toxicity early.
5. A nurse observes a fetal heart rate pattern with late decelerations. What is the immediate nursing
action?
A. Increase the oxytocin infusion rate
B. Place the client in a supine position
C. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask
D. Perform a vaginal exam to check for dilation
Ans: C
Explanation: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which is a significant concern for
fetal oxygenation. The nurse must immediately implement intrauterine resuscitation measures to
improve blood flow to the placenta. Administering oxygen at 8 to 10 liters per minute helps maximize the
oxygen available to the fetus. Additionally, the nurse should turn the mother to her side to relieve
pressure on the vena cava. Documenting the event and notifying the provider are necessary steps after
stabilizing the patient.
6. What is the primary purpose of administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)?
A. To treat jaundice in the newborn
