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NSG 552 Exam 3 Psychopharmacology (2026/2027) | Wilkes University | 150 Q&A with Rationales | TRD, Schizophrenia, Dementia, Insomnia, Special Populations

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Complete NSG 552 Exam 3 Study Guide – Psychopharmacology – Wilkes University (2026/2027 Academic Year) This digital download is a comprehensive 150-question practice exam for NSG 552 Psychopharmacology – Exam 3 at Wilkes University. Designed for graduate nursing students (PMHNP, FNP, AGNP) mastering advanced psychopharmacology for treatment-resistant conditions, schizophrenia spectrum disorders, dementia, insomnia, and special populations. What's included: 150 multiple-choice questions with detailed rationales 5 organized sections covering all exam topics Answers with evidence-based rationales – learn the "why," not just the "what" Section 1: Treatment-Resistant Depression (TRD) – Q1–30 Definition of TRD: failure of ≥2 adequate antidepressant trials Augmentation strategies: atypical antipsychotics (aripiprazole 2–5 mg, brexpiprazole, quetiapine XR 150–300 mg, olanzapine-fluoxetine combination) Aripiprazole: D2/5-HT1A partial agonist, 5-HT2A antagonist; akathisia management (dose reduction or propranolol) Brexpiprazole (Rexulti): lower intrinsic D2 activity (less akathisia) Esketamine (Spravato): NMDA antagonist, intranasal REMS program, dissociation/sedation/hypertension, twice weekly ×4 weeks then weekly ×4 weeks, must be on oral antidepressant TMS: non-invasive magnetic stimulation of dorsolateral prefrontal cortex ECT: gold standard for severe TRD, catatonia, suicidality; transient cognitive side effects (RUL placement minimizes), hold lithium 24–48 hours before VNS: chronic TRD (≥4 failed trials), delayed response (months) DBS: subcallosal cingulate (BA25) or ventral capsule/ventral striatum Stimulants/modafinil for fatigue/apathy; trazodone/mirtazapine for insomnia/anxiety T3 (liothyronine) augmentation: best evidence with TCAs, monitor for hyperthyroidism STAR*D: remission rates decline with each failure (37% → 30% → 14% → 13%) Section 2: Schizophrenia Spectrum & Antipsychotic Management – Q31–65 First-episode psychosis: lower SGA doses, "start low, go slow," maintain ≥1–2 years after remission Clozapine: only agent for treatment-resistant schizophrenia (failure of ≥2 antipsychotics); also FDA-approved for suicidal behavior; REMS ANC monitoring (weekly ×6 mo → q2wk ×6 mo → monthly) Clozapine adverse effects: agranulocytosis (fever/sore throat → hold + STAT ANC), myocarditis (first 2 months – tachycardia, chest pain, dyspnea), sialorrhea (glycopyrrolate), severe constipation/ileus (fatal – hold + imaging), seizures (dose-dependent, 600 mg/day high risk) CATIE trial: 74% discontinuation rate; olanzapine slightly superior but metabolic burden LAIs: reduce relapse 20–30%, offer to all patients (not just non-adherent); risperidone LAI needs oral overlap 3–4 weeks; aripiprazole LAI and paliperidone LAI loading doses achieve levels without prolonged overlap Tardive dyskinesia: VMAT2 inhibitors (valbenazine/Ingrezza, deutetrabenazine/Austedo) or switch to clozapine Negative symptoms: cariprazine (D3-preferring partial agonist), aripiprazole, lurasidone Hyperprolactinemia: switch to prolactin-sparing agent (aripiprazole, clozapine, quetiapine, olanzapine) or add aripiprazole Metabolic monitoring: weight/BMI, waist circumference, BP, fasting glucose/HbA1c, lipids Metformin off-label for antipsychotic-induced weight gain Smoking (CYP1A2 inducer): reduces clozapine/olanzapine levels; smoking cessation → levels rise 50–70% → dose reduction required NMS: after recovery, rechallenge after ≥2 weeks with low-potency agent or clozapine Section 3: Dementia, Delirium & Cognitive Disorders – Q66–95 Alzheimer's disease: cholinesterase inhibitors first-line (donepezil, rivastigmine patch reduces GI side effects, galantamine); memantine (NMDA antagonist) for moderate-severe, renally dosed BPSD: non-pharmacologic first-line; antipsychotics black box warning (↑ mortality, CVA events), use low-dose SGAs (risperidone 0.25–1 mg, olanzapine, quetiapine) only when severe Benzodiazepines: avoid in elderly (falls, cognitive worsening, Beers Criteria) Delirium: treat underlying cause; haloperidol or low-dose SGA if severe agitation; benzodiazepines for alcohol/benzodiazepine withdrawal Lewy Body Dementia: extreme antipsychotic sensitivity; pimavanserin (Nuplazid – 5-HT2A inverse agonist) FDA-approved for Parkinson's disease psychosis, preferred; avoid haloperidol Frontotemporal Dementia: SSRIs for disinhibition/compulsions; cholinesterase inhibitors ineffective Anti-amyloid monoclonal antibodies (aducanumab, lecanemab): for MCI/mild AD with amyloid confirmation; ARIA (edema/hemorrhage) requires serial MRI monitoring; APOE ε4 increases risk Brexpiprazole: FDA-approved for agitation in Alzheimer's dementia Section 4: Sleep-Wake Disorders – Q96–120 CBT-I: first-line for chronic insomnia (stimulus control, sleep restriction) DORAs (suvorexant/Belsomra, lemborexant/Dayvigo, daridorexant/Quviviq): orexin receptor antagonists, no respiratory depression, lower abuse potential, contraindicated in narcolepsy Z-drugs (zolpidem, eszopiclone): GABA-A positive modulators; complex sleep behaviors (sleep-driving) – discontinue immediately Ramelteon (Rozerem): melatonin agonist, no abuse potential (non-controlled), for sleep onset insomnia Low-dose doxepin (3–6 mg/Silenor): H1 antagonist, for sleep maintenance Trazodone 25–100 mg off-label for insomnia; morning grogginess – take earlier or reduce dose OTC antihistamines (diphenhydramine, doxylamine): Beers Criteria (anticholinergic burden in elderly) RLS: dopamine agonists (ropinirole, pramipexole) or alpha-2-delta ligands (gabapentin encarbil, pregabalin); augmentation with long-term dopamine agonists Benzodiazepine/Z-drugs + opioids: fatal respiratory depression risk COPD/sleep apnea: avoid benzodiazepines/Z-drugs; ramelteon/DORAs safer Section 5: Comprehensive & Special Populations – Q121–150 Pregnancy: lithium – Ebstein's anomaly absolute risk ~0.1–0.2%; hold 24–48 hours before delivery (fluid shifts); valproate/carbamazepine highly teratogenic; lamotrigine/atypical antipsychotics preferred mood stabilizers Breastfeeding: sertraline preferred (low infant exposure) Geriatrics: "start low, go slow" (1/4–1/2 adult dose); Beers Criteria (benzodiazepines, anticholinergics); Anticholinergic Cognitive Burden (ACB) scale Pediatrics: SSRI black box warning (suicidal ideation); stimulants – monitor growth (height/weight), appetite suppression, insomnia Polypharmacy: increased adverse events, interactions, non-adherence Serotonin syndrome vs NMS: hyperreflexia/clonus (serotonin) vs lead pipe rigidity/hyporeflexia (NMS) Key drug interactions: lithium + thiazides ↑ toxicity; carbamazepine + OCPs ↓ efficacy (CYP3A4 induction); clozapine + smoking cessation ↑ levels (CYP1A2); warfarin + SSRIs ↑ INR; aripiprazole + CYP2D6 poor metabolizer → 50% dose reduction Pharmacogenomics: CYP2D6 poor metabolizers (7–10% of Caucasians) require aripiprazole dose reduction Hepatic impairment: dose reduction for most psychotropics Renal impairment: adjust lithium, gabapentin, pregabalin, memantine, paliperidone Rating scales: AIMS (tardive dyskinesia), SAS (parkinsonism), BARS (akathisia), CGI (global improvement) Shared decision-making: incorporate patient preferences (e.g., weight-neutral agents) Why this guide works: 150 unique questions – comprehensive coverage of Exam 3 content Detailed rationales – understand complex mechanisms, adverse effects, drug interactions, and clinical decision-making Clinically relevant – prepare for managing TRD, clozapine monitoring, dementia care, insomnia treatment Exam-ready – mirrors the difficulty and style of Wilkes University NSG 552 Format: PDF (150 questions + answer key + rationales) Institution: Wilkes University Course: NSG 552 – Psychopharmacology Term: 2026/2027 Exam: 3 of 3 (TRD, Schizophrenia, Dementia, Insomnia, Special Populations) Instant download – study on any device or print for offline use.

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NSG 552 EXAM 3 PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY —
COMPLETE 150-QUESTION PRACTICE EXAM
Wilkes University | 2026/2027 | Questions with
Answers & Rationales



SECTION 1: ADVANCED TREATMENT STRATEGIES – TREATMENT-
RESISTANT DEPRESSION (TRD) (Questions 1-30)
1. A patient with Major Depressive Disorder has failed two adequate trials of
SSRIs. This patient is considered to have:
A. Pseudo-resistance (non-adherence)
B. Treatment-Resistant Depression (TRD)
C. Bipolar depression
D. Atypical depression
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: TRD is typically defined as an inadequate response to at least two
antidepressant trials of adequate dose and duration. This definition guides
next-step treatment strategies such as augmentation or switching.
2. Which medication has the most robust evidence for augmentation of
antidepressants in TRD?
A. Buspirone
B. Atypical Antipsychotics (e.g., Aripiprazole, Brexpiprazole, Quetiapine XR)
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Stimulants
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Atypical antipsychotics (specifically aripiprazole, brexpiprazole,
quetiapine XR, and olanzapine-fluoxetine combination) have FDA approval
and the strongest evidence for augmenting antidepressants in TRD.

,3. The mechanism of action of aripiprazole as an adjunct for TRD is:
A. Full D2 antagonist and 5-HT2A antagonist
B. D2 and 5-HT1A partial agonist, 5-HT2A antagonist
C. SNRI activity
D. NMDA antagonist
Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: Aripiprazole is a partial agonist at D2 and 5-HT1A receptors and
an antagonist at 5-HT2A receptors. This unique profile stabilizes dopamine
and serotonin systems, enhancing antidepressant response.*
4. When initiating aripiprazole augmentation for TRD, the starting dose is
typically:
A. 10-15 mg/day
B. 2-5 mg/day
C. 20-30 mg/day
D. 0.5 mg/day
Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: Aripiprazole is started at low doses (2-5 mg/day) for TRD
augmentation, significantly lower than doses used for schizophrenia or acute
mania. Higher doses may increase side effects without improving efficacy.*
5. A patient on aripiprazole augmentation develops akathisia. The most
appropriate intervention is:
A. Increase the aripiprazole dose
B. Reduce the dose or add a low-dose beta-blocker (propranolol)
C. Discontinue the antidepressant
D. Add benztropine
Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: Akathisia is a dose-dependent side effect of aripiprazole. Dose
reduction is first-line. If ineffective, low-dose propranolol (20-40 mg/day) or
a benzodiazepine may be used. Benztropine is less effective for akathisia.*

,6. Quetiapine XR is FDA-approved for augmentation in TRD at doses of:
A. 25-50 mg/day
B. 150-300 mg/day
C. 400-800 mg/day
D. 50-100 mg/day
Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: Quetiapine XR is FDA-approved for adjunctive treatment of
MDD at doses of 150-300 mg/day. Lower doses (25-100 mg) are primarily
sedating due to H1 blockade and lack antidepressant efficacy.*
7. The Olanzapine-Fluoxetine Combination (OFC/Symbyax) is indicated for:
A. First-line treatment of MDD
B. Treatment-resistant depression and bipolar I depression
C. Generalized anxiety disorder
D. Insomnia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: OFC is FDA-approved for treatment-resistant depression
(unipolar) and acute bipolar I depression. It combines the rapid serotonergic
effects of fluoxetine with the broad receptor profile of olanzapine.
8. Brexpiprazole (Rexulti) differs from aripiprazole in that it has:
A. Stronger D2 partial agonism
B. Lower intrinsic activity at D2 receptors (less agonist effect) and potent 5-
HT1A partial agonism/5-HT2A antagonism
C. No serotonergic activity
D. Full D2 antagonism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Brexpiprazole has lower intrinsic activity at D2 receptors (closer
to neutral antagonism) than aripiprazole, potentially causing less akathisia
and activation. It retains potent activity at serotonergic receptors.
9. Esketamine (Spravato) is FDA-approved for TRD and works as a:
A. SSRI

, B. Non-competitive NMDA receptor antagonist
C. GABA-A agonist
D. Dopamine agonist
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Esketamine, the S-enantiomer of ketamine, is a non-competitive
NMDA receptor antagonist. It rapidly increases glutamate signaling and
synaptogenesis, providing rapid (within hours to days) antidepressant
effects.
10. Esketamine must be administered:
A. Orally at home
B. Intranasally under direct supervision in a certified healthcare setting, with
monitoring for at least 2 hours
C. As a weekly IM injection
D. Intravenously in the ICU
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Due to risks of sedation, dissociation, and abuse, esketamine is
only available through a restricted REMS program. It is self-administered
intranasally under direct healthcare provider supervision, with mandatory
post-dose monitoring.
11. Common acute side effects of esketamine include:
A. Weight gain and hyperglycemia
B. Dissociation, dizziness, sedation, transient hypertension, and nausea
C. EPS and akathisia
D. Anticholinergic effects
Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: Esketamine commonly causes perceptual disturbances
(dissociation), dizziness, sedation, nausea, and transient blood pressure
elevation. These effects peak within 40-60 minutes and typically resolve
within 2 hours.*

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