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NU 150 Exam 1 Pharmacology (2026/2027) | Galen College of Nursing | 150 Q&A with Rationales | Medication Administration, Diuretics, Insulin, Cardiac Drugs

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Complete NU 150 Exam 1 Study Guide – Pharmacology – Galen College of Nursing (2026/2027 Academic Year) This digital download is a comprehensive 150-question practice exam for NU 150 Pharmacology – Exam 1 at Galen College of Nursing. Designed for nursing students mastering medication administration, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and major drug classes including diuretics, insulin, cardiac medications, anticoagulants, and anti-infectives. What's included: 150 multiple-choice questions with detailed rationales 6 organized units covering all exam topics Answers with evidence-based rationales – learn the "why," not just the "what" Unit 1: Nursing Responsibilities & 6 Rights of Medication Administration (Q1–20) 6 Rights of Medication Administration: Right Patient, Right Drug, Right Dose, Right Route, Right Time, Right Documentation (final safety check) "Clear before cloudy" – drawing up Regular (clear) insulin before NPH (cloudy) First-pass effect: oral drugs metabolized in liver before reaching systemic circulation IV route: fastest onset, 100% bioavailability Elderly patients: decreased liver/kidney function → increased toxicity risk Unit 2: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics (Q21–35) Liver: primary site of drug metabolism (CYP450 system) Half-life, onset, peak, duration Therapeutic index, bioavailability Medication interactions, adverse effects, toxicity Unit 3: Diuretics, Fluid & Electrolyte Balance (Q36–50) Loop diuretics (furosemide/Lasix): act on thick ascending limb of Loop of Henle; monitor potassium (hypokalemia); ototoxicity (tinnitus, hearing loss) – especially with rapid IV push Potassium-sparing diuretics (spironolactone/Aldactone): monitor for hyperkalemia; avoid potassium-rich foods (bananas, oranges) Thiazide diuretics (HCTZ): hypokalemia, hyponatremia; can increase uric acid (precipitate gout) Digoxin + furosemide: hypokalemia increases digoxin toxicity risk (assess potassium before administration) Digoxin toxicity: nausea, vomiting, anorexia, yellow-green halos, bradycardia; hold if apical pulse 60 bpm IV potassium chloride: MUST be diluted and infused slowly (max 10 mEq/hour on med-surg units); NEVER give IV push (cardiac arrest) Monitor for infiltration/extravasation – burning at IV site requires immediate discontinuation Unit 4: Diabetes Management & Insulin Therapy (Q51–75) Type 1 diabetes NPO: contact provider for insulin adjustment (never give full dose without food) Insulin mixing: Regular (clear) drawn up first, then NPH (cloudy) Insulin Glargine (Lantus): long-acting, peakless, 24-hour basal coverage; SUBCUTANEOUS only (never IV); do not mix with other insulins Regular insulin: onset 30–60 min, peak 2–4 hours, duration 5–8 hours Metformin: take with meals to reduce GI side effects; hold 48 hours before and after IV contrast dye (risk of lactic acidosis); hold 24–48 hours before surgery HbA1c: reflects average glucose over 2–3 months; target 7%; 8.5% = poor control Exenatide (Byetta): GLP-1 agonist – inject within 60 minutes before meals; skip if meal skipped Pioglitazone (Actos): TZD – monitor for heart failure/fluid retention Pramlintide (Symlin): inject immediately before meals at separate site from insulin Unit 5: Cardiac Medications (Antihypertensives, Anticoagulants, Antidysrhythmics) (Q76–110) ACE inhibitors (lisinopril): dry cough (bradykinin); angioedema (airway priority); orthostatic hypotension; hyperkalemia (especially with spironolactone) ARBs (losartan): alternative when ACE inhibitor cough is intolerable Beta-blockers (metoprolol, propranolol, carvedilol): bradycardia, hypotension; mask hypoglycemia symptoms (tremor, tachycardia); avoid in asthma (bronchospasm – especially non-selective); do not stop abruptly (rebound) Calcium channel blockers Warfarin (Coumadin): target INR 2.0–3.0 (atrial fibrillation, DVT); mechanical heart valves 2.5–3.5; avoid vitamin K-rich foods (spinach, kale) consistently; soft toothbrush, electric razor; black tarry stools = GI bleed; trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) significantly increases INR Heparin IV: aPTT therapeutic = 1.5–2.5 × control (45–75 seconds); 95 = stop infusion; protamine sulfate for severe bleeding Enoxaparin (Lovenox): LMWH – no routine monitoring (Anti-Xa in special populations) Dabigatran (Pradaxa): direct thrombin inhibitor – swallow whole (do not open/crush); store in original bottle Clopidogrel (Plavix): antiplatelet – black tarry stools; dual antiplatelet with aspirin for 6–12 months after drug-eluting stent Nitroglycerin sublingual: take 1 tablet every 5 minutes ×3 doses; call 911 if chest pain persists after 3 doses; should tingle/burn; store in original brown glass bottle (not plastic bag); replace every 6 months Statins (simvastatin, atorvastatin): muscle pain, tenderness, dark urine = rhabdomyolysis (report immediately); monitor LFTs Digoxin: therapeutic level 0.5–2.0 ng/mL; toxicity 2.0 ng/mL (nausea, vomiting, yellow-green halos); check apical pulse before administration Amiodarone + warfarin: amiodarone significantly increases INR (reduce warfarin dose 30–50%) Unit 6: Respiratory, CNS, Endocrine, and Anti-Infective Agents (Q111–150) Albuterol: SABA – rescue inhaler for acute bronchospasm; excessive use (2×/week) indicates poor asthma control Salmeterol (Serevent): LABA – controller, NOT for acute symptoms Ipratropium (Atrovent): anticholinergic bronchodilator – blocks acetylcholine Prednisone: long-term use requires slow taper (adrenal suppression); monitor hyperglycemia, fluid retention Levothyroxine (Synthroid): take on empty stomach 30–60 min before breakfast; separate from calcium, iron, antacids by 4 hours; full therapeutic effect takes 6–8 weeks; overdose = palpitations, heat intolerance, weight loss Lithium: therapeutic range 0.6–1.2 mEq/L; toxicity 1.5 mEq/L (vomiting, diarrhea, coarse tremor, confusion); maintain consistent sodium/water intake; draw trough 12 hours after last dose Phenytoin (Dilantin): gingival hyperplasia (meticulous oral hygiene); hold tube feedings 1–2 hours before and after administration Valproic acid (Depakote): monitor LFTs and platelet count (hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia) MAOIs (phenelzine/Nardil): avoid tyramine-rich foods (aged cheese, cured meats, wine) – hypertensive crisis SSRIs (fluoxetine/Prozac): delayed onset 4–8 weeks; sexual dysfunction (common, discuss with provider) Isoniazid (INH): hepatotoxicity; vitamin B6 for peripheral neuropathy Rifampin: red-orange urine, tears, sweat (harmless) Gentamicin: aminoglycoside – monitor for nephrotoxicity (↑ creatinine) and ototoxicity (tinnitus, hearing loss); draw trough before next dose Vancomycin: Red Man Syndrome (slow infusion over 60+ minutes); trough levels 10–20 mcg/mL (draw before next dose) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro): chelates with calcium, iron, magnesium – separate by 2 hours; increase fluids to 2–3 L/day (prevent crystalluria) Metoclopramide (Reglan): tardive dyskinesia risk (limit use to 12 weeks) Ondansetron (Zofran): 5-HT3 antagonist for chemotherapy-induced nausea Sumatriptan (Imitrex): contraindicated in CAD, uncontrolled hypertension, stroke Alendronate (Fosamax): take with 8 oz plain water, remain upright 30–60 min; report difficulty swallowing or chest pain Finasteride (Proscar): teratogenic – pregnant women should not handle crushed tablets Sildenafil (Viagra): absolute contraindication with nitrates (profound hypotension) tPA (alteplase): for acute ischemic stroke within 3–4.5 hours; monitor for bleeding; BP target 180/105 mmHg during and after infusion Transfusion reaction: fever, chills, flank pain – stop immediately, disconnect tubing, notify blood bank Neutropenic fever (ANC 500): fever + low ANC = emergency – STAT antibiotics after cultures Amphotericin B: pre-medicate with acetaminophen, diphenhydramine, hydrocortisone (rigors); monitor hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, nephrotoxicity TPN: hold 10% dextrose if TPN unavailable (prevent rebound hypoglycemia) Why this guide works: 150 unique questions – comprehensive coverage of Exam 1 content Detailed rationales – understand mechanisms, side effects, drug interactions, and nursing priorities Clinically relevant – prepare for NCLEX and clinical practice Exam-ready – mirrors the difficulty and style of Galen College of Nursing NU 150 Format: PDF (150 questions + answer key + rationales) Institution: Galen College of Nursing Course: NU 150 – Pharmacology Term: 2026/2027 Exam: 1 of 2 (Medication Administration, Diuretics, Diabetes, Cardiac, Anti-Infectives) Instant download – study on any device or print for offline use.

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NU 150 Exam 1 Pharmacology Tested Questions
(2026/2027) PDF | Nursing | Galen College, Exams of
Pharmacology

1. A patient is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV push. The nurse knows
this medication is classified as:
A. Thiazide diuretic
B. Potassium-sparing diuretic
C. Loop diuretic
D. Osmotic diuretic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is the prototype loop diuretic. It acts on the thick
ascending limb of the Loop of Henle to block sodium and chloride
reabsorption, resulting in profound diuresis.
2. A patient taking spironolactone (Aldactone) should be advised to avoid
which of the following due to the risk of hyperkalemia?
A. Bananas and oranges
B. White bread and pasta
C. Cheddar cheese
D. Caffeine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Consuming
potassium-rich foods (bananas, oranges, potatoes, tomatoes) increases the
risk of life-threatening hyperkalemia.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin and furosemide to a patient
with heart failure. Which lab value is most critical to assess prior to
administration?
A. Serum Calcium
B. Serum Potassium

,C. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)
D. Platelet Count
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) caused by furosemide increases the
risk of digoxin toxicity. The nurse must ensure potassium levels are within
normal range before giving these medications together.
4. What is the primary site of drug metabolism in the body?
A. Kidneys
B. Lungs
C. Liver
D. Small Intestine
Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: The liver is the primary site for biotransformation (metabolism).
The cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver converts lipid-soluble
drugs into water-soluble metabolites for excretion.*
5. A patient with Type 1 diabetes is NPO for a surgical procedure. What is the
nurse's priority action regarding the patient's scheduled morning insulin
dose?
A. Administer the full dose of long-acting insulin as scheduled.
B. Hold all insulin until the patient returns from surgery.
C. Contact the healthcare provider for a specific insulin adjustment order.
D. Administer half the usual dose of regular insulin.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insulin requirements change drastically when a patient is NPO.
Administering insulin without carbohydrate intake risks severe
hypoglycemia. The provider must give a specific order for that day.
6. A nurse is mixing Regular insulin and NPH insulin in one syringe. Which
action is correct?
A. Draw up the NPH (cloudy) first, then the Regular (clear).
B. Draw up the Regular (clear) first, then the NPH (cloudy).

,C. The order of drawing does not matter as long as it is injected immediately.
D. These two insulins cannot be mixed in the same syringe.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The mnemonic is "Clear before Cloudy." Regular insulin (clear) is
drawn up first to prevent contamination of the Regular insulin vial with the
NPH (cloudy) solution, which contains protamine.
7. A patient taking metformin (Glucophage) is scheduled for a CT scan with
IV contrast dye. What is the most important nursing action?
A. Administer the metformin with a full glass of water right before the scan.
B. Ensure the patient's blood sugar is below 200 mg/dL.
C. Hold the metformin for 48 hours prior to and after the procedure per
protocol.
D. Administer sodium bicarbonate before the scan.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: IV contrast dye is nephrotoxic. Combining this with metformin
increases the risk of lactic acidosis and acute kidney injury. Metformin is
typically held 48 hours before and 48 hours after contrast procedures.
8. A patient has been taking an oral corticosteroid (prednisone) for 6 months
for an autoimmune disorder. The nurse teaches the patient that this
medication should never be:
A. Taken with food.
B. Abruptly discontinued.
C. Taken in the morning.
D. Refrigerated.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Long-term steroid use suppresses the adrenal gland's natural
production of cortisol. Abrupt cessation can cause an Addisonian crisis
(adrenal insufficiency) leading to severe hypotension and shock.
9. The "first-pass effect" significantly impacts the bioavailability of which
route of administration?

, A. Intravenous (IV)
B. Intramuscular (IM)
C. Oral (PO)
D. Subcutaneous (SubQ)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Oral medications are absorbed through the GI tract and travel via
the portal vein directly to the liver, where a large percentage of the drug may
be metabolized and inactivated before reaching systemic circulation.
10. A patient develops a rapid, pounding heartbeat and headache after taking
nitroglycerin sublingual. The nurse recognizes this as:
A. A sign of anaphylactic shock.
B. An expected side effect of vasodilation.
C. A sign of medication toxicity.
D. A paradoxical reaction.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator. The rapid drop in blood
pressure triggers a sympathetic reflex, causing tachycardia and headache.
This is expected with the first few doses.
11. What is the therapeutic range for INR for a patient taking warfarin
(Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation?
A. 0.5 - 1.0
B. 1.5 - 2.0
C. 2.0 - 3.0
D. 3.5 - 4.5
Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: For most indications (afib, DVT treatment), the target INR is 2.0
to 3.0. For mechanical heart valves, the range is often higher (2.5-3.5). An
INR below 2.0 indicates risk of clotting; above 3.0 indicates risk of bleeding.*
12. A patient is receiving gentamicin IV. Which assessment finding is the
earliest indicator of nephrotoxicity?

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