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NU 150 Exam 2 Pharmacology (2026/2027) | Galen College of Nursing | 150 Q&A with Rationales | Anticoagulants, Statins, Antihypertensives, Respiratory, Thyroid

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Complete NU 150 Exam 2 Study Guide – Pharmacology – Galen College of Nursing (2026/2027 Academic Year) This digital download is a comprehensive 150-question practice exam for NU 150 Pharmacology – Exam 2 at Galen College of Nursing. Designed for nursing students mastering anticoagulants, antiplatelets, antilipemics, antihypertensives, cardiac glycosides, respiratory agents, and thyroid medications. What's included: 150 multiple-choice questions with detailed rationales 6 organized sections covering all exam topics Answers with evidence-based rationales – learn the "why," not just the "what" Section 1: Anticoagulants, Antiplatelets & Thrombolytics (Q1–35) Warfarin (Coumadin): vitamin K antagonist; target INR 2.0–3.0 (DVT, AFib, PE); mechanical heart valves 2.5–3.5; antidote: vitamin K (FFP/PCC for life-threatening bleeding); avoid vitamin K-rich foods (spinach, kale) – keep consistent intake; avoid NSAIDs/aspirin (↑ bleeding risk); soft toothbrush/electric razor; black tarry stools = GI bleed; drug interactions: Bactrim (↑ INR), amiodarone (↑ INR – reduce warfarin dose 30–50%) Heparin IV: monitor aPTT (therapeutic 1.5–2.5 × control = 45–75 seconds); aPTT 95 = stop infusion; antidote: protamine sulfate; HIT (heparin-induced thrombocytopenia) – drop in platelets, stop heparin, start argatroban/bivalirudin Enoxaparin (Lovenox): LMWH – administer subcutaneously in abdomen (90° angle, pinch skin, no aspiration, no massage); no routine monitoring (Anti-Xa in pregnancy/obesity/renal impairment) Clopidogrel (Plavix): antiplatelet – black tarry stools; dual antiplatelet therapy (with aspirin) for 6–12 months after drug-eluting stent Aspirin 81 mg: irreversibly inhibits platelet aggregation (COX-1) for life of platelet (7–10 days) Dabigatran (Pradaxa): direct thrombin inhibitor – DO NOT open/crush/chew capsule (↑ bleeding risk); store in original bottle (moisture-sensitive); no INR monitoring; no vitamin K reversal Rivaroxaban (Xarelto): factor Xa inhibitor – take with food (especially 15mg/20mg doses); no routine monitoring tPA (Alteplase): thrombolytic for acute ischemic stroke within 3–4.5 hours; monitor for bleeding (gums, IV sites, neurological changes); BP target 180/105 mmHg during and after infusion Section 2: Antilipemics (Statins, Fibrates, Bile Acid Sequestrants, Ezetimibe, Niacin) – Q36–50 Statins (simvastatin, atorvastatin): HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors – take in evening (cholesterol synthesis peaks at night); monitor LFTs (hepatotoxicity); report muscle pain/tenderness/dark urine (rhabdomyolysis); avoid grapefruit juice (↑ levels, toxicity) Gemfibrozil (Lopid): fibrate – ↑ risk of myopathy/rhabdomyolysis when combined with statins (use extreme caution) Cholestyramine (Questran): bile acid sequestrant – mix with water/juice; separate other medications by 1 hour before or 4–6 hours after (binds them) Ezetimibe (Zetia): inhibits cholesterol absorption in small intestine Niacin: causes prostaglandin-mediated flushing/itching – take aspirin 30 minutes before to reduce Fenofibrate: take with food to enhance absorption Section 3: Antihypertensives, Antianginals, Cardiac Glycosides, Antidysrhythmics (Q51–85) ACE inhibitors (lisinopril): dry cough (bradykinin – switch to ARB); angioedema (airway priority); orthostatic hypotension; hyperkalemia (especially with spironolactone) ARBs (losartan): angiotensin II receptor blockers – no cough (alternative to ACE inhibitors) Beta-blockers (metoprolol, carvedilol, propranolol): hold if apical pulse 60 bpm; do not stop abruptly (rebound tachycardia/hypertension); avoid in asthma (bronchospasm – especially non-selective); mask hypoglycemia symptoms (tremor, tachycardia) Calcium channel blockers (amlodipine, verapamil): amlodipine – peripheral edema (common); verapamil – avoid grapefruit juice (↑ levels) Clonidine (Catapres): central alpha-2 agonist – do NOT stop abruptly (rebound hypertension) Adrenergic drugs (dopamine, norepinephrine): for septic shock – ↑ BP and organ perfusion; extravasation causes tissue necrosis (stop infusion immediately) Nitroglycerin sublingual: angina – take 1 tablet q5min ×3 doses; call 911 if chest pain persists after 3 doses (15 min); should tingle/burn (indicates potency); store in original brown glass bottle; replace q6 months; contraindicated with sildenafil/Viagra (profound hypotension) Digoxin: therapeutic level 0.5–2.0 ng/mL; toxicity 2.0 ng/mL (nausea, vomiting, anorexia, yellow-green halos, bradycardia); hold if apical pulse 60 bpm; hypokalemia (from furosemide) ↑ toxicity risk Amiodarone: for atrial fibrillation – monitor for pulmonary fibrosis (baseline and periodic PFTs); ↑ INR when combined with warfarin (reduce warfarin dose 30–50%) Section 4: Respiratory Agents (Bronchodilators, Corticosteroids, Leukotriene Modifiers, Antitussives, Expectorants, Antihistamines) – Q86–115 Albuterol: SABA – rescue inhaler for acute bronchospasm; excessive use (2×/week) indicates poor asthma control (need controller medication) Salmeterol (Serevent): LABA – controller (NOT for acute symptoms); used twice daily Ipratropium (Atrovent): anticholinergic bronchodilator (blocks acetylcholine) Tiotropium (Spiriva): LAMA – once daily for COPD; capsule DO NOT swallow (use HandiHaler) Fluticasone (Flovent) / Advair (fluticasone/salmeterol): inhaled corticosteroids – rinse mouth after use (prevents oral candidiasis/thrush) Montelukast (Singulair): leukotriene receptor antagonist – once daily for long-term asthma control (not rescue) Theophylline: narrow therapeutic index (5–15 mcg/mL); toxicity: nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, seizures Prednisone: long-term use requires slow taper (adrenal suppression); monitor hyperglycemia, fluid retention, Cushingoid features (moon face) Dextromethorphan: antitussive for non-productive cough – can cause drowsiness (avoid driving) Guaifenesin (Mucinex): expectorant – thins respiratory secretions Diphenhydramine (Benadryl): first-generation antihistamine – causes drowsiness, dry mouth (anticholinergic) Loratadine (Claritin): second-generation antihistamine – non-sedating Oxymetazoline (Afrin): nasal decongestant – limit to 3–5 days (prevents rebound congestion/rhinitis medicamentosa) Cromolyn sodium (Intal): mast cell stabilizer – for prophylaxis (not rescue) Omalizumab (Xolair): monoclonal antibody – black box warning for anaphylaxis (observe after injection) COPD oxygen therapy: target SpO2 88–92% (high O2 can suppress hypoxic drive in chronic hypercapnia) Peak flow meter: green zone (80–100% of personal best) = good control; yellow zone (50–80%) = caution; red zone (50%) = emergency Section 5: Thyroid & Antithyroid Medications (Q116–135) Levothyroxine (Synthroid): for hypothyroidism – take on empty stomach 30–60 min before breakfast; separate from calcium, iron, antacids, multivitamins by 4 hours; full therapeutic effect takes 6–8 weeks; overdose symptoms = palpitations, heat intolerance, weight loss (iatrogenic hyperthyroidism) Propylthiouracil (PTU) / Methimazole: for hyperthyroidism – monitor for agranulocytosis (fever, sore throat → report immediately); PTU has black box warning for hepatotoxicity Radioactive iodine (I-131): for hyperthyroidism – body fluids radioactive for several days (avoid close contact, especially with pregnant women/children); ABSOLUTELY contraindicated in pregnancy (crosses placenta → fetal thyroid ablation) Propranolol: controls adrenergic symptoms of hyperthyroidism (tachycardia, tremors, anxiety) while antithyroid medications take effect Lugol's solution (iodine): pre-thyroidectomy – decreases thyroid size and vascularity (reduces bleeding) Section 6: Comprehensive Review & Drug Interactions (Q136–150) ACE inhibitors in diabetes: renal protective effects (prevent diabetic nephropathy) Hyperkalemia (K+ 5.5): administer furosemide (loop diuretic) to lower potassium Narrow therapeutic index drugs: require peak and trough monitoring (e.g., aminoglycosides, vancomycin, theophylline, lithium, digoxin) Cephalosporins: monitor BUN, creatinine, LFTs (nephrotoxicity/hepatotoxicity); cross-sensitivity with penicillin allergy (~1–10%) Antibiotic superinfection: oral ulcers/candidiasis – report to provider Antibiotic adherence: complete full course even if symptoms resolve Clindamycin: take with full glass of water (minimizes GI irritation) Warfarin + antibiotics: monitor INR more frequently (antibiotics alter gut flora and warfarin metabolism) Doxycycline: tetracycline – take with food to improve absorption (unique among tetracyclines) Dopamine extravasation: stop infusion immediately (tissue necrosis) Spironolactone + lisinopril: monitor for severe hyperkalemia (both increase potassium) Why this guide works: 150 unique questions – comprehensive coverage of Exam 2 content Detailed rationales – understand mechanisms, side effects, drug interactions, and nursing priorities Clinically relevant – prepare for NCLEX and clinical practice Exam-ready – mirrors the difficulty and style of Galen College of Nursing NU 150 Format: PDF (150 questions + answer key + rationales) Institution: Galen College of Nursing Course: NU 150 – Pharmacology Term: 2026/2027 Exam: 2 of 2 (Anticoagulants, Antilipemics, Antihypertensives, Respiratory, Thyroid) Instant download – study on any device or print for offline use.

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NU 150
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Voorbeeld van de inhoud

NU 150 EXAM 2 PHARMACOLOGY —
COMPLETE 150-QUESTION PRACTICE
EXAM Galen College of Nursing | 2026/2027 |
Questions with Answers & Rationales

SECTION 1: ANTICOAGULANTS, ANTIPLATELETS & THROMBOLYTICS (Questions 1-
35)

1. The nurse is reviewing dietary restrictions for a client who is currently taking warfarin.
Which of the following statements by the client demonstrates a correct understanding of
the restrictions?
A. "I will avoid all carbohydrates."
B. "I will limit the amount of spinach salad I eat."
C. "I will stop drinking water."
D. "I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables."

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin's effects. Clients
should keep vitamin K intake consistent and avoid sudden increases .

2. A patient taking warfarin (Coumadin) asks about taking ibuprofen for arthritis pain.
The nurse's best response is:
A. "You can take ibuprofen safely with warfarin."
B. "Ibuprofen increases your risk of bleeding and should be avoided."
C. "Take ibuprofen only at bedtime."
D. "Double your warfarin dose if you take ibuprofen."

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: NSAIDs inhibit platelet aggregation and increase the risk of GI bleeding.
Combined with warfarin, the bleeding risk is significantly amplified.

,3. A patient is taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement indicates a need for further
teaching?
A. "I will use a soft toothbrush."
B. "I will take aspirin for my headaches."
C. "I will keep my appointments for INR checks."
D. "I will report any unusual bruising."

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aspirin and other NSAIDs increase bleeding risk when taken with warfarin.
Patients should use acetaminophen for pain relief (with provider approval).

4. The nurse is caring for a client who presents to the emergency department with
bleeding from the nose and an INR value of 4.7. The client has a home prescription for
warfarin. Which of the following does the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?
A. Heparin
B. Vitamin K
C. Aspirin
D. Alteplase

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin and is given to reverse excessive
anticoagulation and reduce bleeding .

5. A patient is prescribed warfarin following a DVT. The nurse knows the therapeutic INR
range for this indication is:
A. 1.0-1.5
B. 1.5-2.0
C. 2.0-3.0
D. 3.0-4.5

Correct Answer: C
*Rationale: For most indications including DVT treatment and prevention, atrial
fibrillation, and pulmonary embolism, the target INR is 2.0-3.0.*

,6. A patient taking warfarin reports eating a large spinach salad daily. The nurse should
anticipate which change in the patient's INR?
A. INR will increase significantly
B. INR will decrease
C. INR will remain unchanged
D. INR will fluctuate unpredictably

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spinach is rich in vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin's anticoagulant effect.
Increased vitamin K intake decreases INR and increases the risk of clot formation.

7. A patient is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should teach the patient to maintain
consistent intake of:
A. Protein
B. Vitamin K-rich foods
C. Calcium
D. Iron

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fluctuations in vitamin K intake affect warfarin's anticoagulant effect. Patients
should maintain consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods to prevent INR fluctuations.

8. What is the antidote for warfarin overdose in a patient with life-threatening bleeding?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin K (phytonadione) and fresh frozen plasma or prothrombin complex
concentrate
C. Naloxone
D. Flumazenil

Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: Vitamin K is the specific antidote for warfarin, but it takes 6-24 hours to work.
In life-threatening bleeding, FFP or PCC is given for immediate reversal.*

, 9. A patient is receiving continuous IV heparin infusion. Which lab value is used to
monitor therapeutic effect?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. PT
D. Platelet count

Correct Answer: B
*Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor
unfractionated heparin therapy. Therapeutic range is typically 1.5-2.5 times the control
value.*

10. A nurse is caring for a client who has thrombophlebitis and is receiving heparin by
continuous IV infusion. The client asks how long it will take for the hepari n to dissolve
the clot. Which response should the nurse give?
A. "The oral medication you will take after this IV will dissolve the clot."
B. "Heparin does not dissolve clots. It stops new clots from forming."
C. "It usually takes heparin at least 2 to 3 days to reach a therapeutic blood level."
D. "A pharmacist is the person to answer that question."

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin does not dissolve existing clots; it prevents the formation of new clots
and extension of existing clots .

11. A patient is receiving continuous IV heparin infusion. The aPTT is 120 seconds (control
30 seconds). The nurse should:
A. Continue the infusion at the current rate
B. Stop the infusion and prepare protamine sulfate
C. Stop the infusion and hold heparin per protocol
D. Increase the infusion rate

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An aPTT of 120 seconds (4 times control) indicates excessive anticoagulation

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