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NU 150 PHARMACOLOGY — COMPLETE 250 QUESTION MASTER EXAM Galen College of Nursing | Exams 1, 2, 3 & Final | 2026/2027 Questions with Answers & Rationales

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Complete NU 150 Pharmacology Master Study Guide – All Exams Combined – Galen College of Nursing (2026/2027 Academic Year) This digital download is a comprehensive 250-question master practice exam for NU 150 Pharmacology at Galen College of Nursing. Unlike separate exam files, this consolidated master exam integrates key concepts from all course exams (Exam 1, Exam 2, Exam 3, and Final Exam) into a single, streamlined 250-question study resource. Designed for nursing students seeking efficient, high-yield review for the NCLEX and course finals. What's included: 250 multiple-choice questions with detailed rationales (condensed from 600+ questions across 4 exams) 4 integrated parts covering all core pharmacology domains Answers with evidence-based rationales – learn the "why," not just the "what" High-yield, board-style questions – ideal for course exams and NCLEX preparation Part 1: Exam 1 Content – Pharmacokinetics, Diuretics, Cardiac Glycosides, Antihypertensives (Q1–60) Core Principles & Drug Administration: 6 Rights of Medication Administration (Right Patient, Right Drug, Right Dose, Right Route, Right Time, Right Documentation) Three critical checks: when pulling drug, during preparation, immediately before administration Pharmacokinetics (ADME – Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion) vs. Pharmacodynamics Liver: primary site of drug metabolism (CYP450 system) First-pass effect: oral drugs metabolized in liver before reaching systemic circulation IV route: fastest onset, 100% bioavailability Elderly patients: decreased liver/kidney function → increased toxicity risk Half-life: time to eliminate 50% of drug; 4–5 half-lives for elimination Loading dose: higher initial dose to rapidly achieve therapeutic levels Therapeutic index: ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose (narrow TI drugs require monitoring) PRN, STAT, high-alert medications (insulin) Idiosyncratic reaction: abnormal/unexpected response Transdermal patches: remove old before applying new; rotate sites; never cut Diuretics & Fluid/Electrolyte Balance: Furosemide (Lasix): loop diuretic – acts on thick ascending limb of Loop of Henle; monitor for hypokalemia (potassium-wasting); ototoxicity (tinnitus, hearing loss) – especially with rapid IV push Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ): thiazide diuretic – acts on distal convoluted tubule; hypokalemia, hyponatremia; can increase uric acid (precipitate gout) Spironolactone (Aldactone): potassium-sparing diuretic – monitor for hyperkalemia; avoid potassium-rich foods (bananas, oranges) Mannitol (Osmitrol): osmotic diuretic – reduces intracranial pressure and cerebral edema Acetazolamide (Diamox): carbonic anhydrase inhibitor – decreases aqueous humor production for glaucoma IV potassium chloride: MUST be diluted and infused slowly (max 10 mEq/hour on med-surg units); NEVER give IV push (cardiac arrest); monitor for infiltration/extravasation (burning at site → stop immediately) Magnesium sulfate: monitor DTRs (loss of DTRs = first sign of toxicity); antidote = calcium gluconate Hypokalemia signs: muscle weakness, leg cramps, fatigue, arrhythmias Cardiac Glycosides & Antihypertensives: Digoxin: check apical pulse for 1 full minute before administration; hold if pulse 60 bpm; therapeutic level 0.5–2.0 ng/mL; toxicity 2.0 ng/mL (nausea, vomiting, anorexia, yellow-green halos); hypokalemia (from furosemide) ↑ toxicity risk ACE inhibitors (lisinopril): dry cough (bradykinin) – switch to ARB (losartan); angioedema (airway priority); orthostatic hypotension; hyperkalemia (especially with spironolactone) ARBs (losartan): angiotensin II receptor blockers – no cough (alternative to ACE inhibitors) Beta-blockers (metoprolol, carvedilol, propranolol): hold if apical pulse 60 bpm; do not stop abruptly (rebound tachycardia/hypertension); avoid in asthma (bronchospasm); mask hypoglycemia symptoms (tremor, tachycardia) Calcium channel blockers (amlodipine, verapamil): amlodipine – peripheral edema; verapamil – avoid grapefruit juice (↑ levels) Clonidine (Catapres): central alpha-2 agonist – do NOT stop abruptly (rebound hypertension) Nitroglycerin sublingual: angina – take 1 tablet q5min ×3 doses; call 911 if chest pain persists after 3 doses (15 min); should tingle/burn (indicates potency); store in original brown glass bottle; replace q6 months; contraindicated with sildenafil/Viagra (profound hypotension) Amiodarone: for atrial fibrillation – monitor for pulmonary fibrosis; ↑ INR when combined with warfarin (reduce warfarin dose 30–50%) Sildenafil (Viagra): absolute contraindication with nitrates Dopamine extravasation: tissue necrosis – stop infusion immediately Part 2: Exam 2 Content – Anticoagulants, Antiplatelets, Thrombolytics, Antilipemics, Respiratory Agents (Q61–120) Anticoagulants & Antiplatelets: Heparin IV: monitor aPTT (therapeutic 1.5–2.5 × control = 45–75 seconds); aPTT 85 sec → decrease rate; aPTT 120 sec → stop infusion; antidote: protamine sulfate; HIT (heparin-induced thrombocytopenia) – drop in platelets, stop heparin, start argatroban/bivalirudin Enoxaparin (Lovenox): LMWH – administer subcutaneously in abdomen (90° angle, pinch skin, no aspiration, no massage); no routine monitoring (Anti-Xa in pregnancy/obesity/renal impairment) Warfarin (Coumadin): vitamin K antagonist; target INR 2.0–3.0 (DVT, AFib, PE); mechanical heart valves 2.5–3.5; antidote: vitamin K (FFP/PCC for life-threatening bleeding); avoid vitamin K-rich foods (spinach, kale) – keep consistent intake; avoid NSAIDs/aspirin (↑ bleeding risk); soft toothbrush/electric razor; black tarry stools = GI bleed; drug interactions: Bactrim (↑ INR), amiodarone (↑ INR – reduce warfarin dose 30–50%) Clopidogrel (Plavix): antiplatelet – black tarry stools; dual antiplatelet therapy (with aspirin) for 6–12 months after drug-eluting stent Aspirin 81 mg: irreversibly inhibits platelet aggregation (COX-1) for life of platelet (7–10 days); for secondary stroke prevention Dabigatran (Pradaxa): direct thrombin inhibitor – DO NOT open/crush/chew capsule (↑ bleeding risk); store in original bottle Rivaroxaban (Xarelto): factor Xa inhibitor – take with food (especially 15mg/20mg doses) tPA (Alteplase): thrombolytic for acute ischemic stroke within 3–4.5 hours; monitor for bleeding; BP target 180/105 mmHg during and after infusion Transfusion reaction (fever, chills, flank pain): stop transfusion immediately, disconnect tubing Antilipemics (Statins, Fibrates, Bile Acid Sequestrants, Ezetimibe, Niacin): Statins (simvastatin, atorvastatin): HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors – take in evening (cholesterol synthesis peaks at night); monitor LFTs (hepatotoxicity); report muscle pain/tenderness/dark urine (rhabdomyolysis); avoid grapefruit juice (↑ levels, toxicity) Gemfibrozil (Lopid): fibrate – ↑ risk of myopathy/rhabdomyolysis when combined with statins Cholestyramine (Questran): bile acid sequestrant – mix with water/juice; separate other medications by 1 hour before or 4–6 hours after Ezetimibe (Zetia): inhibits cholesterol absorption in small intestine Niacin: causes prostaglandin-mediated flushing/itching – take aspirin 30 minutes before to reduce Fenofibrate: take with food to enhance absorption Respiratory Agents: Albuterol: SABA – rescue inhaler for acute bronchospasm; excessive use (2×/week) = poor asthma control (need controller medication) Salmeterol (Serevent): LABA – controller (NOT for acute symptoms) Ipratropium (Atrovent): anticholinergic bronchodilator (blocks acetylcholine) Tiotropium (Spiriva): LAMA – once daily for COPD; capsule DO NOT swallow (use HandiHaler) Fluticasone (Flovent) / Advair (fluticasone/salmeterol): inhaled corticosteroids – rinse mouth after use (prevents oral candidiasis/thrush) Montelukast (Singulair): leukotriene receptor antagonist – once daily for long-term asthma control (not rescue) Theophylline: narrow therapeutic index (5–15 mcg/mL); toxicity: nausea, vomiting, tachycardia, seizures Prednisone: long-term use requires slow taper (adrenal suppression); monitor hyperglycemia, fluid retention Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst): antidote for acetaminophen overdose – replenishes glutathione Guaifenesin (Mucinex): expectorant – thins respiratory secretions Dextromethorphan: antitussive – causes drowsiness Diphenhydramine (Benadryl): first-generation antihistamine – drowsiness, dry mouth Loratadine (Claritin): second-generation antihistamine – non-sedating Oxymetazoline (Afrin): nasal decongestant – limit to 3–5 days (prevents rebound congestion) Cromolyn sodium (Intal): mast cell stabilizer – for prophylaxis (not rescue) Omalizumab (Xolair): monoclonal antibody – black box warning for anaphylaxis Roflumilast (Daliresp): PDE4 inhibitor – weight loss, psychiatric symptoms COPD oxygen therapy: target SpO2 88–92% (high O2 can suppress hypoxic drive) Peak flow meter: green zone (80–100%) = good control; yellow zone (50–80%) = caution; red zone (50%) = emergency Part 3: Exam 3 Content – Gastrointestinal Agents, Anti-Infectives, Analgesics (Q121–180) Gastrointestinal Agents: Omeprazole (Prilosec): PPI – take 30–60 min before first meal; long-term use → ↑ fracture risk (↓ calcium absorption) Famotidine (Pepcid): H2 blocker – blocks histamine receptors at parietal cells (different from PPI) Sucralfate (Carafate): forms protective barrier over ulcers – take 1 hour before meals and at bedtime on empty stomach; separate from other medications by 2 hours Ondansetron (Zofran): 5-HT3 antagonist for chemotherapy-induced nausea Metoclopramide (Reglan): dopamine antagonist – risk of tardive dyskinesia; limit use to 12 weeks Docusate (Colace): stool softener – increases water/fat penetration into stool (does not stimulate peristalsis) Lactulose: for hepatic encephalopathy – acidifies colon, traps ammonia; therapeutic effect = 2–3 soft stools/day Loperamide (Imodium): for acute diarrhea – stop if constipation develops Psyllium (Metamucil): bulk-forming laxative – MUST take with at least 8 oz water Misoprostol (Cytotec): prevents NSAID-induced gastric ulcers; contraindicated in pregnancy (abortifacient) Senna: stimulant laxative – long-term use may cause dependence Aluminum hydroxide antacid: causes constipation (magnesium-based antacids cause diarrhea) Scopolamine patch: for motion sickness – apply behind ear at least 4 hours before travel Sodium bicarbonate: high sodium load – worsens heart failure (fluid retention) Oral vancomycin for C. diff: works locally in GI tract (not absorbed) Polyethylene glycol (Miralax): osmotic laxative – draws water into colon Anti-Infective Agents: Penicillin allergic reaction (rash, itching): FIRST action = discontinue medication Culture and sensitivity: obtain specimen BEFORE starting antibiotics C. difficile infection: severe diarrhea after antibiotics – contact precautions; soap and water hand hygiene (alcohol sanitizer does NOT kill spores) Vancomycin IV: Red Man Syndrome – slow infusion over ≥60 minutes; trough levels 15–20 mcg/mL for serious infections; draw trough immediately before next dose Gentamicin (aminoglycoside): nephrotoxicity (↑ creatinine, ↓ urine output); ototoxicity (tinnitus – irreversible); draw trough before next dose Isoniazid (INH): hepatotoxicity; take vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) to prevent peripheral neuropathy Rifampin: harmless red-orange urine, tears, sweat Amphotericin B: "shake and bake" – pre-medicate with acetaminophen, diphenhydramine, hydrocortisone; monitor hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia Ciprofloxacin (Cipro): chelates with calcium, iron, magnesium – separate by 2 hours before or 6 hours after Sulfonamides (Bactrim): increase fluids (prevent crystalluria); Stevens-Johnson syndrome risk; cross-sensitivity with thiazide diuretics (HCTZ) – contraindicated Metronidazole (Flagyl): disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol – avoid alcohol during and for 48 hours after Acyclovir/Valacyclovir: maintain adequate hydration (2–3 L/day) to prevent nephrotoxicity Doxycycline: tetracycline – photosensitivity (avoid sun, use sunscreen); doxycycline absorption improved with food (unique among tetracyclines) Azithromycin (Zithromax): monitor for QT prolongation Linezolid (Zyvox): weak MAO inhibitor – avoid tyramine-rich foods (hypertensive crisis) Oseltamivir (Tamiflu): most effective within 48 hours of symptom onset Fluconazole (Diflucan): single oral dose for vaginal yeast infection Fidaxomicin (Difficid): narrow-spectrum for C. diff – preserves normal gut flora Penicillin allergy + cephalosporins: cross-reactivity ~1–10% (monitor closely) Superinfection: from prolonged broad-spectrum antibiotics → C. diff or candidiasis Analgesics (NSAIDs, Acetaminophen, Opioids): Morphine/opioids: priority assessment = respiratory rate (hold if 12/min); pruritus from histamine release – treat with antihistamine (not anaphylaxis) Acetaminophen: max daily dose 3,000–4,000 mg (hepatotoxicity risk) Ibuprofen/NSAIDs: contraindicated in clotting disorders; monitor for acute kidney injury; GI bleeding risk Celecoxib (Celebrex): COX-2 selective NSAID – less GI bleeding but cardiovascular risk remains; contraindicated in sulfa allergy Naloxone (Narcan): opioid antagonist – reverses respiratory depression; shorter duration than morphine (may require repeat dosing) Ketorolac (Toradol): limit to ≤5 days (↑ bleeding, renal risk) Tramadol (Ultram): monitor for seizures (lowers seizure threshold) Fentanyl transdermal patch: remove old patch before applying new; do not cut; avoid heat (↑ absorption → overdose) Sumatriptan (Imitrex): triptan – take at first sign of migraine; contraindicated in CAD, uncontrolled hypertension, stroke Codeine/Tylenol #3: opioid – avoid driving (sedation) Allopurinol: for chronic gout – increase fluids (2–3 L/day) to prevent kidney stones; report rash immediately (Stevens-Johnson risk); does NOT treat acute attacks Colchicine: acute gout – narrow therapeutic window; stop at first sign of GI toxicity (diarrhea, vomiting) Part 4: Final Exam Content – Psychopharmacology, Endocrine, Neurology, Reproductive Health, Comprehensive (Q181–250) Psychopharmacology: Lithium: therapeutic range 0.6–1.2 mEq/L; toxicity: tremors, nausea, vomiting, confusion; draw trough 12 hours after last dose; maintain consistent sodium/water intake Benzodiazepines (lorazepam/Ativan, alprazolam/Xanax): CNS depression – avoid driving, no alcohol; do NOT stop abruptly (withdrawal seizures); taper slowly SSRIs (fluoxetine/Prozac): delayed onset 4–8 weeks; sexual dysfunction in 30–60% (common, discuss with provider) Duloxetine (Cymbalta): SNRI for diabetic neuropathy MAOIs: avoid tyramine-rich foods (aged cheese, cured meats, wine) → hypertensive crisis Haloperidol (Haldol): monitor for Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (fever, rigidity, AMS, autonomic instability) Bupropion (Wellbutrin): contraindicated in seizure disorders (lowers seizure threshold) Zolpidem (Ambien): avoid alcohol (CNS depression) Valproic acid (Depakote): monitor LFTs and platelets Donepezil (Aricept): for Alzheimer's – slows progression (does NOT cure); monitor GI side effects Sinemet (levodopa-carbidopa): for Parkinson's – harmless dark urine/sweat/saliva; avoid high-protein meals (↓ absorption); facial twitching = dyskinesia (dopamine toxicity) Phenytoin (Dilantin): gingival hyperplasia; toxicity: ataxia, slurred speech, nystagmus (level 20 mcg/mL → hold dose) Endocrine & Diabetes: Type 1 diabetes: absolute insulin deficiency; Type 2 diabetes: insulin resistance HbA1c: reflects glucose over 2–3 months; target 7%; 9.2% = poor control NPO and insulin: call provider for adjustment (never give full dose without food) Hypoglycemia treatment: glucagon, glucose, juice/candy/milk – NOT insulin Insulin mixing: "Clear before Cloudy" (draw Regular clear first, then NPH cloudy) Rotating insulin sites: prevents lipodystrophy Metformin (Glucophage): hold 48 hours before and after IV contrast dye (lactic acidosis risk); muscle pain + weakness + abdominal discomfort = suspect lactic acidosis; take with meals Insulin glargine (Lantus): peakless, 24-hour basal coverage; do NOT mix with other insulins Pramlintide (Symlin): inject immediately before meals at separate site from insulin Sitagliptin (Januvia): DPP-4 inhibitor Pioglitazone (Actos): monitor for heart failure/fluid retention TPN hyperglycemia: add regular insulin to TPN bag or sliding scale Levothyroxine (Synthroid): take on empty stomach 30–60 min before breakfast; separate from calcium/iron/antacids by 4 hours; full effect 6–8 weeks; overdose = palpitations, heat intolerance, weight loss Methimazole/PTU: monitor for agranulocytosis (fever, sore throat → report immediately) Radioactive iodine (I-131): body fluids radioactive for several days; avoid close contact Propranolol + diabetes: masks hypoglycemia symptoms (tremor, tachycardia) Neurology & Musculoskeletal: Pyridostigmine (Mestinon): for myasthenia gravis – take 30 min before meals; excessive salivation = cholinergic crisis Sumatriptan (Imitrex): contraindicated in CAD, uncontrolled hypertension Cyclobenzaprine: muscle relaxant – drowsiness, dry mouth; short-term use only Allopurinol: increase fluids; report rash Colchicine: stop at GI toxicity Baclofen: do NOT stop abruptly (withdrawal seizures) Gabapentin (Neurontin): start low, titrate slowly Fingolimod (Gilenya): first dose bradycardia (monitor for 6 hours) Ropinirole (Requip): sudden sleep attacks, impulse control disorders Memantine (Namenda): NMDA antagonist for Alzheimer's Interferon beta: flu-like symptoms after injection Atropine: anticholinergic – causes tachycardia Reproductive Health: Sildenafil (Viagra): contraindicated with nitrates; does NOT protect against STIs; priapism 4 hours → seek care Tamsulosin (Flomax): alpha-1 blocker – orthostatic hypotension (rise slowly) Finasteride (Proscar): 5-alpha reductase inhibitor – teratogenic (pregnant women avoid handling crushed tablets) Oxybutynin (Ditropan): anticholinergic – dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention Conjugated estrogens (Premarin): ↑ risk of DVT/PE/stroke Oral contraceptives: ACHES warning signs (report immediately) Raloxifene (Evista): SERM – black box warning for VTE Depo-Provera: calcium supplementation recommended (bone loss risk) Testosterone gel (AndroGel): wash hands after application; avoid skin-to-skin contact Clomiphene (Clomid): ↑ risk of multiple gestations Alendronate (Fosamax): take with 8 oz plain water, remain upright 30–60 min; report difficulty swallowing/chest pain Spironolactone + lisinopril: monitor for severe hyperkalemia tPA: acute ischemic stroke window = 3–4.5 hours Why this master exam works: 250 high-yield questions – integrated review of all course exams (1, 2, 3, and Final) Detailed rationales – understand mechanisms, side effects, drug interactions, and nursing priorities Efficient study – one file instead of four separate exams Exam & NCLEX ready – mirrors Galen College of Nursing NU 150 and NCLEX style Format: PDF (250 questions + answer key + rationales) Institution: Galen College of Nursing Course: NU 150 – Pharmacology Term: 2026/2027 Type: Master Exam (Exams 1, 2, 3 & Final Combined) Instant download – study on any device or print for offline use.

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NU 150 PHARMACOLOGY — COMPLETE 250-
QUESTION MASTER EXAM Galen College of
Nursing | Exams 1, 2, 3 & Final |
2026/2027 Questions with Answers &
Rationales

PART 1: EXAM 1 CONTENT (Questions 1-60)
Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, Drug Administration, Diuretics, Fluid &
Electrolytes


Section 1.1: Core Principles & Drug Administration (1-20)
1. What are the "6 Rights" of medication administration?
A. Right Patient, Right Medication, Right Dose, Right Route, Right Time, Right
Documentation
B. Right Assessment, Right Diagnosis, Right Planning, Right Implementation,
Right Evaluation
C. Right Patient, Right Medication, Right Dose, Right Prescriber, Right Pharmacy
D. Right Medication, Right Dose, Right Time, Right Route, Right Cost
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The "6 Rights" are fundamental to safe medication administration: Right
Patient, Right Medication, Right Dose, Right Route, Right Time, and Right
Documentation.
2. The nurse should perform checks of the 6 Rights at which three specific times?
A. When reviewing the chart, when calling the pharmacy, and at shift change
B. When removing the drug from storage, when preparing the medication, and
right before administering it
C. At the start of the shift, before lunch, and at the end of the shift

,D. When the patient is admitted, when the medication is ordered, and after it is
given
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To prevent errors, the nurse must check the 6 Rights against the
medication order at three critical junctures: when pulling the drug, during
preparation, and immediately before administration.
3. If a patient questions the appearance of a medication, what is the nurse's most
appropriate first action?
A. Explain that the pharmacy must have sent a different generic brand
B. Reassure the patient and administer the drug to maintain the dosing schedule
C. Investigate the patient's concern and re-verify the medication against the order
D. Tell the patient to take it and you will check on it later
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A questioning patient is a critical safety check. The nurse should always
investigate the patient's concern before proceeding. If an error is found, it can be
prevented.
4. Which patient identifier is most appropriate to use before medication
administration?
A. The patient's first name
B. The patient's room and bed number
C. Scanning the patient's wristband and asking their name and date of birth
D. Asking the patient "Are you Mrs. Smith?"
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Using at least two unique identifiers (e.g., name, date of birth, or
medical record number) is a national patient safety goal. Room number is not a
reliable identifier.
5. What is the priority nursing action after administering a new oral medication?
A. Document the administration immediately, including site/route and any pre-
assessment vitals
B. Check on the patient at the end of the shift to see if the drug worked
C. Leave the medication wrapper at the bedside for the patient to review
D. Wait 24 hours to document in case the patient has a delayed reaction

,Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Documentation should be completed promptly after administration. The
nurse should also evaluate the patient's response within a typical timeframe (e.g.,
60 minutes for oral meds).
6. What does the term "pharmacokinetics" describe?
A. The study of a drug's mechanism of action and receptor binding
B. What the body does to the drug (absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion)
C. The desired therapeutic effect of a drug
D. The potential for drug abuse and dependency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacokinetics refers to the movement of a drug through the body
over time, often remembered by the acronym ADME (Absorption, Distribution,
Metabolism, Excretion).
7. Which organ is primarily responsible for the metabolism of most drugs?
A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Small intestine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The liver is the primary site for drug metabolism (biotransformation),
where enzymes break down drugs into inactive metabolites.
8. The "first-pass effect" significantly reduces the bioavailability of which route of
administration?
A. Intravenous (IV)
B. Intramuscular (IM)
C. Oral (PO)
D. Subcutaneous (SubQ)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Oral medications are absorbed through the GI tract and travel via the
portal vein directly to the liver, where a large percentage of the drug may be
metabolized and inactivated before reaching systemic circulation.

, 9. A patient with severe renal impairment is at the highest risk for which drug-
related complication?
A. Poor drug absorption from the GI tract
B. A lack of therapeutic effect from all medications
C. Drug toxicity due to decreased excretion
D. An immediate hypersensitivity reaction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The kidneys are the major route for drug excretion. When kidney
function is impaired, drugs and their metabolites can accumulate in the body,
leading to toxic levels.
10. What does the term "pharmacodynamics" describe?
A. How the body eliminates waste products
B. What the drug does to the body (e.g., mechanism of action, therapeutic effect)
C. The relationship between a drug's dose and its absorption rate
D. The time it takes for half the drug to be eliminated
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics is the study of the biochemical and physiological
effects of drugs and their mechanisms of action at the cellular level.
11. Which route of drug administration provides the fastest onset of action?
A. Oral (PO)
B. Subcutaneous (SubQ)
C. Intramuscular (IM)
D. Intravenous (IV)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: IV administration bypasses absorption barriers entirely, delivering the
drug directly into the bloodstream. This results in 100% bioavailability and
immediate onset.
12. The nurse understands that an elderly patient is at increased risk for drug
toxicity primarily due to:
A. Increased gastric acid production
B. Decreased liver and kidney function

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