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ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY MIDTERM NUR 6501 WALDEN UNIVERSITY / COMPLETE ACTUAL EXAM / 150+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS / 2025/202

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Ace the Advanced Pathophysiology Midterm (NUR 6501) at Walden University with this comprehensive exam preparation guide. This resource contains 150+ actual exam questions with correct detailed answers covering every major topic tested in this rigorous nurse practitioner course. What's Inside: Hematologic Disorders: Anemia classification by MCV: microcytic (MCV 80 – iron deficiency, GI blood loss, beta thalassemia), normocytic (MCV 80-100), macrocytic (MCV 100 – pernicious anemia, B12/folate deficiency). Peripheral blood smear findings: microcytic/hypochromic cells → GI blood loss; schistocytes → TTP; sickle cells → sickle cell disease. Von Willebrand disease – excessive bleeding following tooth extraction. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) – blasts with TdT+, CD19+, PAS-positive aggregates; lacks peroxidase granules. Anemia of chronic disease – low serum iron, low TIBC, normal/high ferritin (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis patient). Thalassemia – reduced synthesis of hemoglobin (alpha or beta chains); microcytic anemia with normal serum iron. DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation) – high risk in post-partum women, post-surgical patients. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) – schistocytes, headaches, neurologic problems. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation (not von Willebrand factor synthesis or factor Xa). Cardiovascular Disorders: Uncontrolled hypertension → left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) on echocardiogram and ECG (enlarged QRS waves). Aortic stenosis – crescendo-decrescendo murmur at right upper sternal border, radiation to carotids, syncope, LVH. Aortic dissection – sudden severe chest/back pain, unequal radial/pedal pulses, history of hypertension. Wide complex ventricular tachycardia – cause of sudden collapse in healthy individual playing basketball. Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy – four-chamber dilation, ejection fraction 30%, no obstructive CAD on CT. Bradycardia from blocked pathway at or below AV node (not SA node). Prosthetic aortic valve – expected long-term complication: aortic stenosis (not regurgitation or embolization). Pulmonary edema from myocardial infarction – increased hydrostatic pressure. Tetralogy of Fallot – severity determined primarily by degree of pulmonary stenosis. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy – LVH on ECG, normal ECHO? (ECHO appears normal but LVH noted – likely HCM), systolic murmur, decreased distal pulses. Atrial fibrillation – rapid chaotic atrial impulse formation causing ineffective quivering; risk factors include valvular heart disease, mitral valve prolapse, hypertension (NOT Asian descent). Dilated cardiomyopathy – all 4 chambers enlarged and dilated. Acid-Base & Electrolyte Disorders: Respiratory alkalosis – pH 7.45, PaCO2 35; acute SOB, anxiety, normal CXR/ECG (e.g., pulmonary embolism until proven otherwise). Chronic respiratory acidosis – pH 7.34, PCO2 59, HCO3 28 (compensated). SIADH (Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone) – hyponatremia (Na+ 121), normal glucose, history of small cell lung cancer. Hypocalcemia – Chvostek sign (facial twitching on tapping facial nerve). Hypercalcemia + hypophosphatemia → primary hyperparathyroidism. Pulmonary Disorders: Asthma diagnosis – FEV1 80% predicted, FEV1 increases ≥15% after short-acting bronchodilator. COPD – chronic productive cough, dyspnea, flattened diaphragm on CXR, smoking history (35 pack-years), coarse breath sounds. Community-acquired pneumonia – fever, crackles, infiltrates/consolidation on CXR, elevated WBC. Abscess formation – round density with air-fluid level after treated pneumonia. Restrictive lung disease – prohibits air flow into alveoli by not allowing chest expansion; decreased expansion of lung. Cystic fibrosis – hyperinflated lungs with bronchiectasis on CXR; sweat chloride test negative: 30 mmol/L (21 = negative). Active TB – weight loss, night sweats, hemoptysis (NOT "fever in the morning"). GOLD guidelines – diagnose and treat COPD. Endocrine Disorders: Hypothyroidism – elevated TSH, decreased free T4; Hashimoto's thyroiditis (most common cause in US); symptoms: fatigue, weight gain, constipation, puffy face. Type 2 diabetes – fasting glucose 140-160, overweight (BMI 30+), family history, hypertension; early metabolic derangement often includes hyperlipidemia. Type 1 diabetes – polydipsia, polyuria, polyphagia, weight loss, fatigue; multifactorial inheritance (not simple Mendelian). Pheochromocytoma – paroxysmal hypertension (BP 210/105), palpitations, panic, headache, nausea, diaphoresis; catecholamine-secreting tumor. Myxedema coma – not this case; pheochromocytoma fits episodic symptoms. Primary hyperparathyroidism – hypercalcemia + hypophosphatemia. DI (Diabetes Insipidus) – excessive urination/thirst from inadequate ADH. Cushing's syndrome – ACTH hypersecretion by pituitary gland. Somogyi effect – nocturnal hypoglycemia followed by surge of counter-regulatory hormones (rebound hyperglycemia). Dawn phenomenon – morning hyperglycemia without preceding hypoglycemia. Neurologic Disorders: Multiple sclerosis (MS) – relapses and remissions; increased IgG, oligoclonal bands in CSF; periventricular demyelination on MRI. Myasthenia gravis – progressive weakness worse at end of day (fatigable weakness), diplopia, ptosis; AChR antibodies and MuSK receptor antibodies. Cluster headache – severe periorbital pain, occurs daily for weeks, wakes patient at night, more common in middle-aged white males. Temporal arteritis – transient visual loss, headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, elevated ESR; can cause blindness if untreated. OCD (Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder) – rituals (reorganizing bookshelf, brushing teeth 3x), distress with change in plans. Schizophrenia – core symptoms: hallucinations and disorganized speech (DSM-5: two or more core symptoms). Parkinson's disease – dopamine deficiency; tremor that occurs at rest and improves with activity (NOT "tremor with activity that improves with rest"). ALS (Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) – no cure; patients under 25 less likely to develop bulbar symptoms rapidly. Carpal tunnel syndrome – numbness/tingling in hand/arm from pinched nerve. Hemorrhagic CVA – acute onset focal neurological deficits. TIA (Transient Ischemic Attack) – focal deficits that resolve within 24 hours. Renal & Genitourinary Disorders: Cholelithiasis (gallstones) – excessive bile saturated with cholesterol; most sensitive diagnostic test: abdominal ultrasound. Nephrolithiasis (kidney stones) – most common type: calcium oxalate; acute flank pain radiating to groin, costovertebral tenderness. Polycystic kidney disease – autosomal dominant (adult type, diagnosed age 30-40); best diagnostic test: ultrasound. Acute prostatitis – most common organism: E. coli. Renal blood flow – diminishes up to 10% per decade after age 30-40 (TRUE). Rheumatologic & Autoimmune Disorders: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) – early signs: joint pain, tenderness, swelling, loss of ROM, limping; immune system abnormality. Ankylosing spondylitis – inflammatory arthritis affecting spine and large joints; diagnosed by physical exam and X-ray. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) – proteinuria and hematuria on urinalysis (renal involvement); African American female, fatigue, weight loss, joint pain, malar rash worse with sun exposure. Patient teaching for SLE – "Wear sunscreen and large brimmed hats when exposed to the sun" (NOT tanning beds). Dermatologic Disorders: Malignant melanoma – ABCDEE criteria; mole with ragged borders, bleeds frequently (asymmetry, irregular borders, color variation, diameter 6mm, evolving). Melanoma prevention – avoid direct sunlight exposure between 1000 and 1600 (peak UV hours). Seborrheic keratoses – benign, painless, "stuck on" appearance, brown/black/beige. Herpes zoster (shingles) – acute vesicular eruption from varicella-zoster virus reactivation. Cellulitis – red, hot, painful swelling; most common bacteria: Staphylococcus & Streptococcus; outpatient treatment: Penicillins. Infectious Diseases: C. difficile – watery diarrhea and abdominal cramps after antibiotic use for UTI. Pneumocystis pneumonia – most common infection in AIDS (80% occurrence); AIDS diagnosis: CD4+ count 200. Bacterial meningitis in unvaccinated 4-year-old – most likely H. influenzae (CSF: numerous neutrophils, low glucose, increased protein). HIV patient with SOB, chest pain, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly – mediastinal mass on CXR (likely lymphoma). Genetics & Oncology: BRCA-1 mutation – associated with breast cancer. Benign tumor characteristics – well differentiated (low mitotic index, encapsulated, grows slowly). X-linked recessive disorders – Duchenne muscular dystrophy, hemophilia, color vision deficiency (NOT cystic fibrosis – autosomal recessive). Miscellaneous: Infertility definition – after 6 months of trying to conceive (for woman over 35). Male infertility causes – genetic disorders, hormonal disruption, varicoceles (ALL OF THE ABOVE). MCV ranges: 80 = microcytic; 80-100 = normocytic; 100 = macrocytic. Chvostek sign = hypocalcemia. Gold guidelines for COPD: GOLD. GINA guidelines for asthma. Why This Guide is Different: 150+ Actual Exam Questions – real NUR 6501 midterm content. Verified Correct Answers (ANS....) – all answers detailed and accurate. Walden University Specific – tailored to this specific course. Quick Reference – perfect for last-minute review before exam day

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Instelling
Advanced Pathophysiology 6501
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Advanced Pathophysiology 6501

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY MIDTERM NUR 6501
WALDEN UNIVERSITY / COMPLETE ACTUAL EXAM / 150+
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS / 2025/202




A 68-year-old previously healthy female has been feeling increasingly tired
and weak for several months. She states that she has had black, tarry
stools for several weeks. She is found to be anemic with a hemoglobin
concentration of 9.3g/dL. The peripheral blood smear reveals microcytic
and hypochromic blood cells. Which of the following conditions should be
suspected as the most likely of her condition as indicated by the peripheral
blood smear?


A. Aplastic anemia
B. Beta thalassemia
C. Gastrointestinal blood loss
D. Pernicious anemia - ANS.... -Gastrointestinal blood loss


A 76-year-old female notices that small, pinpoint to blotchy areas of
superficial hemorrhage have appeared on her gums and on the skin of her
arms and legs over several weeks. She is found to have a normal
prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Her CBC
shows hemoglobin concentration of 12.7 g/dL, hematocrit of 37.2%. MCV
of 80 fL/red cell, platelet count of 276,000/microliter, and WBC of
5600/microliter. Her template bleeding time is 3 minutes. Her fibrinogen
level is normal, and there are no fibrin split products detectable. Which of
the following conditions best explain these findings?


A. Chronic renal failure

,B. Macro nodular cirrhosis
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
D. Vitamin C deficiency - ANS.... -Vitamin C deficiency


A young adult patient has just been diagnosed with Von Willebrand
disease. Which of the following statements should you make to advise the
patient of potential consequences of this disease?


A. You may need an allogeneic bone marrow transplant
B. You may have excessive bleeding following tooth extraction
C. A splenectomy may be necessary to control the disease
D. Expect increasing difficulties with joint mobility - ANS.... -You may have
excessive bleeding following tooth extraction


A 4-year-old child appears listless for the last week. He complains of pain
when he is picked up by his mother, and he is irritable when touching his
arms or legs. Several large ecchymotic lesions have appeared on his right
thigh and left shoulder. A complete blood count reveals a HgB=10.2,
Hct=30.5%, MCV=96fL, platelet count of 45,000/ML, and WBC count of
13,990/ML. Examination of the peripheral blood smear reveals numerous
blasts. The blasts lack peroxidase-positive granules but do contain periodic
acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive aggregates and stain positively for TdT. Flow
cytometry shows the phenotype of blasts to be CD19+, CD3-, and sIg-.
What is the most likely diagnosis?


A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
C. Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)
D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) - ANS.... -Acute lymphoblastic
leukemia

,A 3-year-old child of Italian ancestry presents with failure to thrive. Physical
examination indicates hepatosplenomegaly. His hemoglobin concentration
is 6 g/dL, and the peripheral blood smear reveals severely hypochromic
microcytic red cells. Total serum iron level is normal. The reticulocyte count
is 10%. Hemoglobin electrophoresis shows very little hemoglobin A. A
radiograph of the skull shows maxillofacial deformities. What is the principle
cause of anemia and other abnormalities in this patient?


A. Reduced synthesis of hemoglobin F
B. Reduced red blood cell survival from imbalance in the production of
alpha and beta globin chains
C. Relative deficiency of vitamin B12
D. Increased fragility of the erythrocyte membrane - ANS.... -Reduced
synthesis of hemoglobin F


Low dose aspirin is commonly used to reduce the risk of arterial thrombosis
in patients who have suffered a myocardial infarction. Which one of the
following steps in homeostasis is inhibited by aspirin?


A. Synthesis of von Willebrand factor
B. Aggregation of platelets
C. Activation of factor Xa
D. Synthesis of antithrombin III - ANS.... -Aggregation of platelets


A 24-year-old presents to the office with fatigue. On physical exam, the NP
notices that she ispale with the following vital signs: HR 112, BP 98/64,
resp 20, O2 sats 99%. Her CBC shows: WBC6,000, Hemoglobin 9.6,
Hematocrit 30.2, MCV is decreased at 76. What is the mostly likely causeof
this patient's anemia?

, A. Iron deficiency anemia caused by menstruation
B. Beta Thalassemia of genetic origin
C. Pernicious anemia caused by dietary deficiency
D. Folate deficiency caused by alcoholism - ANS.... -Iron deficiency anemia
caused by menstruation


A 65-year-old female presents to your office complaining of fatigue. She
has a long of rheumatoid arthritis. A CBC reveals the following: Hgb=11.6
g/dL, Hct=34.8%, MCV=87 fL/red cell, platelet count of 268,000/microliter,
and WBC count of 6800/microliter. The serum haptoglobin level is normal,
and the serum iron concentration is 20 micrograms/dL. The total iron
binding capacity is 195 micrograms/dL, and the percent saturation is 10.2.
The serum ferritin concentration is 317 ng/mL. No fibrin split products are
detected. The reticulocyte concentration is 1.1%. What is the most likely
diagnosis?


A. Beta- thalassemia major
B. Anemia of chronic disease
C. Acute blood loss anemia
D. Iron deficiency anemia - ANS.... -Anemia of chronic disease


A 14-year-old male presents with high fever for ten days. Physical
examination reveals scattered petechial hemorrhages but is negative for
enlargement of the liver or spleen or lymph nodes. Bone marrow
examination does not show any abnormal cells. The complete blood count
(CBC) demonstrates a hemoglobin concentration (HgB) of 13.2 g/dL,
hematocrit (Hct) of 38.9%, mean cell volume (MCV) of 93 fL, platelet count
of 175,000/microliter, and white blood cell (WBC) count of 1850/microliter,
with the differential count showing 1 segmented neutrophil, 98

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