NURS100 Fundamentals of Nursing Final Exam Review 2026 – WCU
1. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a suspected urinary tract
infection. Which of the following parts of the nursing process is the nurse
performing?
A. Diagnosis
B. Evaluation
C. Implementation
D. Assessment
Answer: D
Rationale: Assessment is the first step of the nursing process and involves systematic data
collection to determine the client’s health status.
2. Which ethical principle refers to the obligation to do no harm to the patient?
A. Nonmaleficence
B. Autonomy
C. Beneficence
D. Justice
Answer: A
Rationale: Nonmaleficence is the commitment to do no harm, while beneficence is the
commitment to do good.
,3. When performing hand hygiene, how long should a nurse scrub their hands
with soap and water?
A. At least 5 seconds
B. Exactly 10 seconds
C. At least 1 minute
D. At least 15 to 20 seconds
Answer: D
Rationale: CDC guidelines recommend scrubbing hands for at least 15 to 20 seconds to
effectively remove microorganisms.
4. A client is at risk for falls. Which of the following is the priority nursing
intervention?
A. Keep all four side rails up
B. Apply physical restraints
C. Place the bed in the lowest position
D. Instruct the client to stay in bed at all times
Answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the bed in the lowest position reduces the distance of a potential fall
and is a standard safety protocol.
5. Which of the following describes a Stage 2 pressure injury?
A. Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin
B. Full-thickness skin loss with visible fat
C. Partial-thickness skin loss with a viable, pink/red, moist wound bed
D. Full-thickness skin and tissue loss with exposed bone
Answer: C
Rationale: Stage 2 involves partial-thickness loss of dermis, often appearing as a shallow
open ulcer or a ruptured blister.
, 6. A nurse is taking vital signs. The adult client’s respiratory rate is 24 breaths
per minute. This should be documented as:
A. Eupnea
B. Tachypnea
C. Bradypnea
D. Apnea
Answer: B
Rationale: Tachypnea is a respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute in an adult.
7. In the SBAR communication tool, what does the ‘R’ stand for?
A. Review
B. Results
C. Response
D. Recommendation
Answer: D
Rationale: SBAR stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation.
8. Which route of medication administration provides the fastest absorption
into the systemic circulation?
A. Intravenous
B. Subcutaneous
C. Oral
D. Intramuscular
Answer: A
Rationale: Intravenous (IV) medications enter the bloodstream directly, providing
immediate onset and 100% bioavailability.
1. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has a suspected urinary tract
infection. Which of the following parts of the nursing process is the nurse
performing?
A. Diagnosis
B. Evaluation
C. Implementation
D. Assessment
Answer: D
Rationale: Assessment is the first step of the nursing process and involves systematic data
collection to determine the client’s health status.
2. Which ethical principle refers to the obligation to do no harm to the patient?
A. Nonmaleficence
B. Autonomy
C. Beneficence
D. Justice
Answer: A
Rationale: Nonmaleficence is the commitment to do no harm, while beneficence is the
commitment to do good.
,3. When performing hand hygiene, how long should a nurse scrub their hands
with soap and water?
A. At least 5 seconds
B. Exactly 10 seconds
C. At least 1 minute
D. At least 15 to 20 seconds
Answer: D
Rationale: CDC guidelines recommend scrubbing hands for at least 15 to 20 seconds to
effectively remove microorganisms.
4. A client is at risk for falls. Which of the following is the priority nursing
intervention?
A. Keep all four side rails up
B. Apply physical restraints
C. Place the bed in the lowest position
D. Instruct the client to stay in bed at all times
Answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the bed in the lowest position reduces the distance of a potential fall
and is a standard safety protocol.
5. Which of the following describes a Stage 2 pressure injury?
A. Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin
B. Full-thickness skin loss with visible fat
C. Partial-thickness skin loss with a viable, pink/red, moist wound bed
D. Full-thickness skin and tissue loss with exposed bone
Answer: C
Rationale: Stage 2 involves partial-thickness loss of dermis, often appearing as a shallow
open ulcer or a ruptured blister.
, 6. A nurse is taking vital signs. The adult client’s respiratory rate is 24 breaths
per minute. This should be documented as:
A. Eupnea
B. Tachypnea
C. Bradypnea
D. Apnea
Answer: B
Rationale: Tachypnea is a respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute in an adult.
7. In the SBAR communication tool, what does the ‘R’ stand for?
A. Review
B. Results
C. Response
D. Recommendation
Answer: D
Rationale: SBAR stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation.
8. Which route of medication administration provides the fastest absorption
into the systemic circulation?
A. Intravenous
B. Subcutaneous
C. Oral
D. Intramuscular
Answer: A
Rationale: Intravenous (IV) medications enter the bloodstream directly, providing
immediate onset and 100% bioavailability.
