NHS PATHWAYS DLP EXAMINATION PRACTICE TEST
(2025/2026 UPDATED STANDARDS)
INTRODUCTION:
This comprehensive practice examination is designed to prepare candidates for the NHS
Pathways Distance Learning Programme (DLP) assessment and Health Advisor certification.
Based on 2025/2026 NHS Pathways training materials, Class 1 Medical Device protocols, and
current triage standards, this test covers all essential domains for Health Advisors, call handlers,
nursing students, and healthcare professionals completing NHS Pathways training. The scope
encompasses clinical emergencies, ABC protocols, triage system structure, assessment protocols,
trauma management, chronic conditions, special populations, and system safety requirements.
DOMAIN 1: CLINICAL EMERGENCIES & ABC PROTOCOLS (Questions 1-15)
Question 1: How long after being deprived of oxygen do cells start to die?
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 3-5 minutes
C. 6-8 minutes
D. 10-15 minutes
Answer: B
Rationale: Cells begin to die after 3-5 minutes of oxygen deprivation. This timeline is critical for
understanding the urgency of airway and breathing interventions in emergency situations.
Question 2: What is agonal breathing?
A. Normal breathing at a rate of 12-20 breaths per minute
B. Barely breathing or taking infrequent, noisy gasps occurring about every 10-15 seconds
C. Rapid, deep breathing associated with panic attacks
D. Wheezing associated with asthma attacks
Answer: B
Rationale: Agonal breathing is characterized by infrequent, noisy gasps occurring approximately
every 10-15 seconds. It occurs in about 40% of cardiac arrest patients and should NOT be
considered effective breathing.
,Question 3: If there is doubt about whether a collapsed person is displaying agonal breathing,
what should happen?
A. Wait 30 seconds to confirm before acting
B. Assume they are not breathing and begin CPR
C. Check for a pulse first
D. Call their GP for advice
Answer: B
Rationale: If there is any doubt about whether agonal breathing is present, it should be
assumed that the person is NOT breathing. Immediate CPR should be initiated without delay.
Question 4: What percentage of cardiac arrest patients display agonal breathing?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 40%
D. 60%
Answer: C
Rationale: Agonal breathing occurs in approximately 40% of cardiac arrest patients. This is a
critical statistic for Health Advisors to recognize that agonal breathing is common in cardiac
arrest and should not delay CPR.
Question 5: What does AED stand for?
A. Advanced Emergency Device
B. Automated External Defibrillator
C. Assisted Emergency Delivery
D. Automatic Electronic Diagnostic
Answer: B
Rationale: AED stands for Automated External Defibrillator. This device is essential in cardiac
arrest management and delivers an electric shock to restore normal heart rhythm.
Question 6: For each minute CPR is delayed, by what percentage do survival rates decrease?
,A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Answer: B
Rationale: For each minute CPR is delayed, survival rates decrease by 10% according to
Resuscitation Council guidelines. This emphasizes the critical importance of immediate
intervention.
Question 7: What is the first priority in telephone assessment of a potentially life-threatening
condition?
A. Obtain the patient's full medical history
B. Establish if the patient's condition is life threatening
C. Determine the patient's NHS number
D. Identify the patient's GP
Answer: B
Rationale: The first priority in telephone assessment is to establish if the patient's condition is
life threatening. This follows the ABC protocol and clinical hierarchy of NHS Pathways.
Question 8: How can you tell if someone has a complete blockage of their airway?
A. They develop a rash
B. The caller begins to choke
C. They complain of chest pain
D. They become pale
Answer: B
Rationale: A complete blockage of the airway is indicated when the caller begins to choke. This
is an immediate life-threatening emergency requiring urgent intervention.
Question 9: How does impaired consciousness threaten a person's airway?
A. It causes swelling of the throat
, B. Lack of muscle control allows the tongue to fall back, blocking the airway
C. It increases mucus production
D. It causes the vocal cords to spasm
Answer: B
Rationale: Impaired consciousness threatens the airway because lack of muscle control allows
the tongue to fall back, blocking the airway. This is why positioning is crucial in unconscious
patients.
Question 10: Which of the following is NOT a sign of impaired consciousness?
A. Uncoordinated movements
B. Drowsiness
C. Alert and oriented
D. Confusion
Answer: C
Rationale: Signs of impaired consciousness include being uncoordinated, drowsy, or confused.
Being alert and oriented indicates normal consciousness, not impairment.
Question 11: What are three factors that can cause fits or seizures?
A. Diabetes, asthma, and allergies
B. Epilepsy, head injuries, and high fever
C. Heart disease, stroke, and cancer
D. Anxiety, depression, and stress
Answer: B
Rationale: Three factors that can cause fits are epilepsy, head injuries, and high fever. These are
important considerations when assessing patients presenting with seizure activity.
Question 12: What is the specific medical definition of vertigo?
A. General feeling of tiredness
B. Sensation of spinning or having the room spinning about you
C. Severe headache with visual disturbances
(2025/2026 UPDATED STANDARDS)
INTRODUCTION:
This comprehensive practice examination is designed to prepare candidates for the NHS
Pathways Distance Learning Programme (DLP) assessment and Health Advisor certification.
Based on 2025/2026 NHS Pathways training materials, Class 1 Medical Device protocols, and
current triage standards, this test covers all essential domains for Health Advisors, call handlers,
nursing students, and healthcare professionals completing NHS Pathways training. The scope
encompasses clinical emergencies, ABC protocols, triage system structure, assessment protocols,
trauma management, chronic conditions, special populations, and system safety requirements.
DOMAIN 1: CLINICAL EMERGENCIES & ABC PROTOCOLS (Questions 1-15)
Question 1: How long after being deprived of oxygen do cells start to die?
A. 1-2 minutes
B. 3-5 minutes
C. 6-8 minutes
D. 10-15 minutes
Answer: B
Rationale: Cells begin to die after 3-5 minutes of oxygen deprivation. This timeline is critical for
understanding the urgency of airway and breathing interventions in emergency situations.
Question 2: What is agonal breathing?
A. Normal breathing at a rate of 12-20 breaths per minute
B. Barely breathing or taking infrequent, noisy gasps occurring about every 10-15 seconds
C. Rapid, deep breathing associated with panic attacks
D. Wheezing associated with asthma attacks
Answer: B
Rationale: Agonal breathing is characterized by infrequent, noisy gasps occurring approximately
every 10-15 seconds. It occurs in about 40% of cardiac arrest patients and should NOT be
considered effective breathing.
,Question 3: If there is doubt about whether a collapsed person is displaying agonal breathing,
what should happen?
A. Wait 30 seconds to confirm before acting
B. Assume they are not breathing and begin CPR
C. Check for a pulse first
D. Call their GP for advice
Answer: B
Rationale: If there is any doubt about whether agonal breathing is present, it should be
assumed that the person is NOT breathing. Immediate CPR should be initiated without delay.
Question 4: What percentage of cardiac arrest patients display agonal breathing?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 40%
D. 60%
Answer: C
Rationale: Agonal breathing occurs in approximately 40% of cardiac arrest patients. This is a
critical statistic for Health Advisors to recognize that agonal breathing is common in cardiac
arrest and should not delay CPR.
Question 5: What does AED stand for?
A. Advanced Emergency Device
B. Automated External Defibrillator
C. Assisted Emergency Delivery
D. Automatic Electronic Diagnostic
Answer: B
Rationale: AED stands for Automated External Defibrillator. This device is essential in cardiac
arrest management and delivers an electric shock to restore normal heart rhythm.
Question 6: For each minute CPR is delayed, by what percentage do survival rates decrease?
,A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Answer: B
Rationale: For each minute CPR is delayed, survival rates decrease by 10% according to
Resuscitation Council guidelines. This emphasizes the critical importance of immediate
intervention.
Question 7: What is the first priority in telephone assessment of a potentially life-threatening
condition?
A. Obtain the patient's full medical history
B. Establish if the patient's condition is life threatening
C. Determine the patient's NHS number
D. Identify the patient's GP
Answer: B
Rationale: The first priority in telephone assessment is to establish if the patient's condition is
life threatening. This follows the ABC protocol and clinical hierarchy of NHS Pathways.
Question 8: How can you tell if someone has a complete blockage of their airway?
A. They develop a rash
B. The caller begins to choke
C. They complain of chest pain
D. They become pale
Answer: B
Rationale: A complete blockage of the airway is indicated when the caller begins to choke. This
is an immediate life-threatening emergency requiring urgent intervention.
Question 9: How does impaired consciousness threaten a person's airway?
A. It causes swelling of the throat
, B. Lack of muscle control allows the tongue to fall back, blocking the airway
C. It increases mucus production
D. It causes the vocal cords to spasm
Answer: B
Rationale: Impaired consciousness threatens the airway because lack of muscle control allows
the tongue to fall back, blocking the airway. This is why positioning is crucial in unconscious
patients.
Question 10: Which of the following is NOT a sign of impaired consciousness?
A. Uncoordinated movements
B. Drowsiness
C. Alert and oriented
D. Confusion
Answer: C
Rationale: Signs of impaired consciousness include being uncoordinated, drowsy, or confused.
Being alert and oriented indicates normal consciousness, not impairment.
Question 11: What are three factors that can cause fits or seizures?
A. Diabetes, asthma, and allergies
B. Epilepsy, head injuries, and high fever
C. Heart disease, stroke, and cancer
D. Anxiety, depression, and stress
Answer: B
Rationale: Three factors that can cause fits are epilepsy, head injuries, and high fever. These are
important considerations when assessing patients presenting with seizure activity.
Question 12: What is the specific medical definition of vertigo?
A. General feeling of tiredness
B. Sensation of spinning or having the room spinning about you
C. Severe headache with visual disturbances
