HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Verified
Questions & Answers with Rationales |
Complete Nursing Exam Study Guide
Your time: 1 min
Correct
Incorrect
Your answers
1 of 20
Term
A male client receives a thrombolytic medication following a
myocardial infarction. When the client has a bowel movement, what
action should the nurse implement?
a. Send stool sample to the lab for a guaiac test
b. Observe stool for a day-colored appearance.
c. Obtain specimen for culture and sensitivity analysis
d. Asses for fatty yellow streaks in the client's stool.
Give this one a try later!
Encourage the client to eat finger foods
Rationale: Eyes-hand coordination is often affected with dementia. Providing a
way to eat without using utensils is likely to help the client maintain
independence while obtaining adequate nutrition. A: increase frustration.
, Teach client to use incentive spirometer q2 hours while awake. Remove urinary
catheter as soon as possible and encourage voiding.
Send stool sample to the lab for a guaiac test
Rationale: Thrombolytic drugs increase the tendency for bleeding. So,
guaiac (occult blood test) test of the stool should be evaluated to detect
bleeding in the intestinal tract.
Demonstrates willingness to adhere to the diet consistently
Don't know?
2 of 20
Term
The healthcare provider prescribes oxycodone/ aspirin 1 tab PO
every 4h as needed for pain, for a client with polycystic kidney
disease. Before administering this medication, which component of
the prescription should the nurse question?
a- Aspirin content.
b- Dose
c- Route
d- Risk for addiction
Give this one a try later!
Tented skin turgor.
Rationale: D indicate dehydration, a serious complication following prolonged
diarrhea that requires further interventions by the nurse.
, a. Restlessness
b. Clenched Fist
c. Increased pulse rate
d. Increased respiratory rate.
a. Aspirin content.
Rationale: Aspirin content medication are contraindicated for client with
polycystic kidney disease because the risk for bleeding.
c. Increase intravenous infusion
Rationale: a fundus that is dextroverted (up to the right) and elevated above the
umbilicus is indicative of bladder distension/urine retention.
Don't know?
3 of 20
Term
When assessing and adult male who presents as the community
health clinic with a history of hypertension, the nurse note that he
has 2+ pitting edema in both ankles. He also has a history of
gastroesophageal reflex disease (GERD) and depression. Which
intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement?
a. Arrange to transport the client to the hospital
b. Instruct the client to keep a food journal, including portions size.
c. Review the client's use of over the counter (OTC) medications.
d. Reinforce the importance of keeping the feet elevated.
, Give this one a try later!
Review the client's use of over the counter (OTC) medications
Rationale: Sodium is used in several types of OTC medications. Including
antacids, which the client may be using to treat his GERD. Further
evaluation is need it to determine the need for hospitalization (A) A food
journal (B) may help over, but dietary modifications are needed now since
edema is present. (C) May relieve dependent edema, but not treat the
underlying etiology.
Waste 0.5 ml from the pre-filled syringe and inject the medication in the
ventrogluteal site
RATIONALE: The pre-filled contain 30mg /1ml, so 0.5ml should be wasted to
obtain the correct dosage of 15mg for administration in the preferred IM
ventrogluteal site. The nurse is responsible for calculating and preparing the
prescribed dose using the available concentration, so other options are not
indicated.
C. Assess client's knowledge of an allergy response
Ask the client what he is thinking about at his time.
Don't know?
4 of 20
Term
Several months after a foot injury, and adult woman is diagnosed
with neuropathic pain. The client describes the pain as severe and
burning and is unable to put weight on her foot. She asks the nurse
when the pain will "finally go away." How should the nurse respond?
Questions & Answers with Rationales |
Complete Nursing Exam Study Guide
Your time: 1 min
Correct
Incorrect
Your answers
1 of 20
Term
A male client receives a thrombolytic medication following a
myocardial infarction. When the client has a bowel movement, what
action should the nurse implement?
a. Send stool sample to the lab for a guaiac test
b. Observe stool for a day-colored appearance.
c. Obtain specimen for culture and sensitivity analysis
d. Asses for fatty yellow streaks in the client's stool.
Give this one a try later!
Encourage the client to eat finger foods
Rationale: Eyes-hand coordination is often affected with dementia. Providing a
way to eat without using utensils is likely to help the client maintain
independence while obtaining adequate nutrition. A: increase frustration.
, Teach client to use incentive spirometer q2 hours while awake. Remove urinary
catheter as soon as possible and encourage voiding.
Send stool sample to the lab for a guaiac test
Rationale: Thrombolytic drugs increase the tendency for bleeding. So,
guaiac (occult blood test) test of the stool should be evaluated to detect
bleeding in the intestinal tract.
Demonstrates willingness to adhere to the diet consistently
Don't know?
2 of 20
Term
The healthcare provider prescribes oxycodone/ aspirin 1 tab PO
every 4h as needed for pain, for a client with polycystic kidney
disease. Before administering this medication, which component of
the prescription should the nurse question?
a- Aspirin content.
b- Dose
c- Route
d- Risk for addiction
Give this one a try later!
Tented skin turgor.
Rationale: D indicate dehydration, a serious complication following prolonged
diarrhea that requires further interventions by the nurse.
, a. Restlessness
b. Clenched Fist
c. Increased pulse rate
d. Increased respiratory rate.
a. Aspirin content.
Rationale: Aspirin content medication are contraindicated for client with
polycystic kidney disease because the risk for bleeding.
c. Increase intravenous infusion
Rationale: a fundus that is dextroverted (up to the right) and elevated above the
umbilicus is indicative of bladder distension/urine retention.
Don't know?
3 of 20
Term
When assessing and adult male who presents as the community
health clinic with a history of hypertension, the nurse note that he
has 2+ pitting edema in both ankles. He also has a history of
gastroesophageal reflex disease (GERD) and depression. Which
intervention is the most important for the nurse to implement?
a. Arrange to transport the client to the hospital
b. Instruct the client to keep a food journal, including portions size.
c. Review the client's use of over the counter (OTC) medications.
d. Reinforce the importance of keeping the feet elevated.
, Give this one a try later!
Review the client's use of over the counter (OTC) medications
Rationale: Sodium is used in several types of OTC medications. Including
antacids, which the client may be using to treat his GERD. Further
evaluation is need it to determine the need for hospitalization (A) A food
journal (B) may help over, but dietary modifications are needed now since
edema is present. (C) May relieve dependent edema, but not treat the
underlying etiology.
Waste 0.5 ml from the pre-filled syringe and inject the medication in the
ventrogluteal site
RATIONALE: The pre-filled contain 30mg /1ml, so 0.5ml should be wasted to
obtain the correct dosage of 15mg for administration in the preferred IM
ventrogluteal site. The nurse is responsible for calculating and preparing the
prescribed dose using the available concentration, so other options are not
indicated.
C. Assess client's knowledge of an allergy response
Ask the client what he is thinking about at his time.
Don't know?
4 of 20
Term
Several months after a foot injury, and adult woman is diagnosed
with neuropathic pain. The client describes the pain as severe and
burning and is unable to put weight on her foot. She asks the nurse
when the pain will "finally go away." How should the nurse respond?
