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NUR 254 Exam 4: Maternal and Pediatrics - Galen College of Nursing Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale

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NUR 254 Exam 4: Maternal and Pediatrics - Galen College of Nursing Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale

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NUR 254 Exam 4: Maternal and Pediatrics - Galen College
of Nursing Updated and Latest Questions and Correct
Answers with Rationale
1. A nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks gestation who presents with sudden, dark red vaginal bleeding

and intense abdominal pain. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

A. Placenta previa


B. Cervical insufficiency


C. Abruptio placentae


D. Hydatidiform mole


Correct Answer: C


Rationale: Abruptio placentae is characterized by painful, dark red vaginal bleeding due to the

premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. In contrast, placenta previa typically involves

painless, bright red bleeding. The intensity of the abdominal pain and uterine tenderness are hallmark

signs of an abruption. Immediate nursing assessment of fetal well-being and maternal hemodynamic

stability is crucial. This condition is a medical emergency that often requires rapid delivery to prevent

maternal and fetal morbidity.


2. A 2-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit with suspected bacterial meningitis. Which clinical

manifestation should the nurse prioritize during assessment?

A. Increased appetite and thirst


B. Presence of a positive Brudzinski sign


C. Sunken anterior fontanel


D. Bradycardia and hypotension

,Correct Answer: B


Rationale: A positive Brudzinski sign, where neck flexion causes involuntary hip and knee flexion,

indicates meningeal irritation. This is a classic finding in bacterial meningitis for children over the age of

infancy. Other signs include nuchal rigidity, high fever, and a bulging (not sunken) fontanel in infants.

Rapid identification of these neurological signs is vital for starting timely antibiotic therapy. The nurse

must also monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure as the infection progresses.


3. A postpartum nurse is assessing a client 2 hours after delivery and finds the fundus is boggy and displaced

to the right. What is the nurse’s priority action?

A. Administer oxytocin immediately


B. Assist the client to the bathroom to void


C. Notify the provider of potential hemorrhage


D. Perform vigorous fundal massage


Correct Answer: B


Rationale: A displaced and boggy fundus is most often caused by a full bladder preventing effective

uterine contraction. Assisting the client to empty their bladder allows the uterus to return to the midline

and contract properly. While fundal massage is important, it will not resolve the issue if the bladder

remains distended. After voiding, the nurse should reassess the fundal position and tone to ensure

stability. Preventing bladder distention is a key intervention in managing the risk of postpartum

hemorrhage.


4. A nurse is teaching the parents of a child with Tetralogy of Fallot how to manage a hypercyanotic (Tet)

spell. Which instruction is most important?

A. Offer a bottle to soothe the infant

, B. Place the child in a knee-chest position


C. Begin chest compressions immediately


D. Encourage the child to take deep breaths


Correct Answer: B


Rationale: The knee-chest position increases systemic vascular resistance, which helps shunt blood into

the pulmonary artery rather than through the ventricular septal defect. This maneuver improves

oxygenation and decreases the right-to-left shunt during an acute cyanotic episode. Parents should be

taught to recognize the onset of a spell and act quickly to reposition the child. Comforting the child is also

important to reduce oxygen demand, but the physical maneuver is the priority. Medical follow-up is

necessary after any significant hypercyanotic event.


5. Which laboratory result would the nurse expect for a client diagnosed with HELLP syndrome?

A. Elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit


B. Platelet count of 75,000/mm³


C. Decreased liver enzymes (AST/ALT)


D. Reduced serum creatinine levels


Correct Answer: B


Rationale: HELLP syndrome is defined by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets. A

platelet count of 75,000/mm³ is significantly below the normal range and fits the diagnostic criteria.

Hemolysis would typically lead to decreased hemoglobin rather than an elevation. Elevated liver enzymes

would also be present due to hepatic involvement and tissue damage. Close monitoring of coagulation

profiles and liver function is essential for these high-risk obstetric patients.

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