MED 140 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS WELL ANSWERED LATEST UPDATE 2026

MED 140 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS WELL ANSWERED LATEST UPDATE 2026 The transfer of heat from one object to another is known as A. Convection B. Microwaves C. Radiation D. Conduction - Answers D. Conduction What is the normal range for body temperature? A. 97-100.4*F B.97-99*F C. 96-98*F D. 98-99*F - Answers B. 97-99*F Which of the following terms refers to fever? A.Dehydration B. Afebrile C. Hypothermia D. Febrile - Answers D. Febrile You take Mrs.Main's temperature at 7:00 a.m.; it reads 97.8*F. At 3:00 p.m.; you take her temperature again; it reads 99*F. How do you account for the difference? A.During sleep, body metabolism slows down B. Mrs.Main normally runs a low body temperature C. Woman normally run a higher body temperature than men. D. During sleep, muscle activity increases - Answers A. During sleep body metabolism slows down Which of the following symptoms are experienced by a patient when his or her temperature begins to rise? A. Coldness and chills B. Perspiration C. Bradycardia D. Hyperventilation E. All of the above - Answers A. coldness and chills What Is the name given to the type of fever in which the temperature fluctuates minimally but always remains elevated? A. Remittent B. Continuous C. Satidum D. Intermittent - Answers B. continuous A vague sense of body discomfort weakness and fatigue is known as A. Malaise B. The blahs C. Adventitious D. Crisis - Answers A. malaise What is the name given to the type of fever in which a wide range of temperature fluctuations occurs, all of which are above normal? A. Remittent B. Continuous C. Stadium D. Intermittent - Answers A. remittent Before taking body temperature with an electronic thermometer, what must happen? A. The ear canal must be straightened. B. The probe must be covered with a disposable cover. C. The thermometer must be calibrated. D. The thermometer must be shaken down to 96 °F. - Answers B. The probe must be covered with a disposable cover. The axilla is recommended as the preferred site for taking the temperature of A. A preschooler B. An uncooperative patient C. An adult D. An infant - Answers A. A preschooler When taking axillary body temperature, the arm should be held close to the body to A. Allow for proper placement of the thermometer B. Prevent irritation to the skin C. Prevent air currents from affecting the reading D. Prevent the transfer of pathogens - Answers C. Prevent air currents from affecting the reading If an axillary temperature of 100 °F was taken orally, it would register as A. 99 °F B. 101 °F C. 100 °F D. 98 °F - Answers B. 101 °F The rectal site should not be used to take the temperature of A. A newborn B. An unconscious patient C. An infant D. A mouth-breathing patient - Answers A. A newborn A rectal thermometer must be lubricated before insertion to prevent A. An inaccurate temperature reading B. The thermometer from breaking C. The transfer of pathogens D. Irritation of the rectal mucosa - Answers D. Irritation of the rectal mucosa How far should the probe be inserted when measuring the rectal temperature of an infant? A. 1/2 inch B. 1 inch C. 1 1/2 inches D. 1/4 inch - Answers A. 1/2 inch The lens of a tympanic membrane thermometer should be cleaned with A. A mild detergent B. A soft tissue C. An abrasive cleanser D. An antiseptic (alcohol) wipe - Answers D. An antiseptic (alcohol) wipe What should be done with a used probe cover for a tympanic membrane thermometer? A. It should be cleaned with an antiseptic and reused. B. It should be ejected into a regular waste container. C. It should be left on the thermometer and used on the next patient. D. It should be ejected into a biohazard waste container. - Answers B. It should be ejected into a regular waste container Why is the temporal artery a good site for measuring body temperature? A. It is easily accessible. B. It has a constant, steady flow of blood. C. It is located close to the surface of the skin. D. All of the above - Answers D.All of the above The temporal artery site can be used to measure body temperature in A. Infants B. Children C. Adults D. Elderly E. All of the above - Answers E. All of the above When the patient's forehead is sweating, which of the following ensures an accurate temporal artery temperature reading? A. Applying a probe cover B. Taking the temperature behind the earlobe C. Brushing the patient's hair to the side D. Cleaning the lens with an antiseptic wipe - Answers B. Taking the temperature behind the earlobe Chemical thermometers must be stored in A. The freezer B. A cool area C. A watertight container D. A dry heat oven - Answers B. A cool area Which of the following is NOT included in the purpose of measuring pulse? A. To assess pulse rate after special procedures that affect heart functioning B. To establish the patient's baseline pulse rate C. To determine if the patient is developing hypertension D. To assess pulse rate after the administration of medications that affect heart functioning - Answers C. To determine if the patient is developing hypertension Which of the following individuals has the fastest pulse rate? A. School-age child B. Adult C. Adolescent D. Infant - Answers D. Infant For an artery to be considered as a pulse site, it must be A. Located close to the heart B. Located over a firm tissue such as bone C. Located in a closed cavity D. Located away from major nerves - Answers B. Located over a firm tissue such as bone Where is the popliteal pulse located? A. In the back of the knee B. In front of the ear, just above eye level C. On the anterior side of the neck D. In the middle of the groin - Answers A. In the back of the knee Where is the femoral pulse located? A. In the posterior hip region B. In the back of the knee C. In the middle of the groin D. On the anterior side of the neck - Answers C. In the middle of the groin You are measuring the pulse and find it has a normal rhythm and volume. How should you record this? A. Thready and regular B. Bounding and strong C. Regular and strong D. Dysrhythmia and regular - Answers C. Regular and strong You are taking the pulse and find it feels extremely strong and full. How would you record this? A. Tachycardia B. Bradycardia C. Thready D. Bounding - Answers D. Bounding Internal respiration is the A. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and blood B. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and body cells C. Measurement of the oxygen saturation of the blood D. Removal of carbon dioxide from the lungs - Answers B. Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and body cells The normal respiratory rate of an adult ranges from A. 12-20 respirations per minute B. 8-16 respirations per minute C. 16-22 respirations per minute D. 10-18 respirations per minute - Answers A. 12-20 respirations per minute Which of the following individuals has the slowest respiratory rate? A. Preschool child B. Infant C. Newborn D. Adult - Answers D. Adult What term is used to describe breathing that is easier in a sitting position? A. Dyspnea B. Eupnea C. Orthopnea D. Bradypnea - Answers C. Orthopnea Pulse oximetry provides the physician with information on A. The amount of oxygen being delivered to the tissues B. Cardiac dysrhythmias C. Circulation to the extremities D. The rate and depth of respiration - Answers A. The amount of oxygen being delivered to the tissues The abbreviation used to record oxygen saturation as measured by a pulse oximeter is A. PCO2 B. SpO2 C. SaO2 D. PO2 - Answers B. SpO2 The oxygen saturation level of a healthy individual is A. 75-85% B. 95-99% C. 85-90% D. 90-95% - Answers B. 95-99% What term designates a decrease in the oxygen saturation of the blood? A. Hypopnea B. Hypoxemia C. Apnea D. Hypoxia - Answers B. Hypoxemia The purpose of the power-on self-test (POST) performed by a pulse oximeter is to A. Search for the patient's pulse B. Determine if the battery is low C. Check the internal systems of the oximeter D. Calculate the patient's oxygen saturation level - Answers C. Check the internal systems of the oximeter Which of the following prevents ambient light from interfering with the SpO2 reading? A. Cleansing the placement site with an alcohol wipe B. Proper alignment of the probe on the patient's finger C. Covering the probe with a washcloth D. Warming the probe placement site - Answers C. Covering the probe with a washcloth What effect can patient movement have on the pulse oximetry procedure? A. Prevents the probe from being aligned properly B. Causes a decrease in blood flow to the finger C. Prevents the probe from picking up the pulse signal D. Causes the photodetector to absorb too much light - Answers C. Prevents the probe from picking up the pulse signal If the patient's fingers are cold when performing pulse oximetry, the medical assistant should A. Ask the patient to rub his or her fingers together. B. Take the reading on another finger. C. Use a disposable probe to take the reading. D. Cleanse the probe with an antiseptic wipe. - Answers A. Ask the patient to rub his or her fingers together. The systolic blood pressure represents the A. Pressure in the arteries when the heart relaxes B. Expansion and recoiling of the aorta C. Pressure in the arteries when the atria contract D. Pressure in the arteries when the ventricles contract - Answers D. Pressure in the arteries when the ventricles contract What term is used to describe the point of lesser pressure on the arterial walls when assessing blood pressure? A. Systolic pressure B. Diastolic pressure C. Hypotension D. Pulse pressure E. Diastole - Answers B. Diastolic pressure Normal blood pressure for an adult is A. 120/80 mm Hg or higher B. 70-80 beats/min C. 110-140 over 60-90 mm Hg D. Less than 120/80 mm Hg - Answers D. Less than 120/80 mm Hg Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing hypertension? A. Alcohol consumption B. Smoking C. Sleep apnea D. Obesity - Answers C. Sleep apnea If a patient's blood pressure is 130/85 mm Hg, the patient's pulse pressure would be A. 85 B. 45 C. 130 D. 215 - Answers B. 45 Which of the following has an effect on blood pressure? A. Pain B. Bladder distention C. Body position D. Smoking E. All of the above - Answers E. All of the above What type of cuff would probably be needed to measure blood pressure on an overweight adult weighing 250 pounds? A. Child B. Adult C. Thigh D. Small adult - Answers C. Thigh Over which artery is the stethoscope placed when taking blood pressure? A. Radial B. Brachial C. Carotid D. Apical - Answers B. Brachial All of the following are advantages of using an automated blood pressure monitor except: A. The blood pressure measurement is easy to read. B. The brachial artery does not need to be located. C. The cuff does not have to be manually inflated. D. Can be used to measure blood pressure in a patient with a dysrhythmia. - Answers D. Can be used to measure blood pressure in a patient with a dysrhythmia. When measuring blood pressure, the Korotkoff phase in which the sounds disappear is A. Phase I B. Phase III C. Phase V D. Phase IV - Answers C. Phase V What information is contained in the medical record? A. Health history B. Results of the physical examination C. Laboratory reports D. Progress notes E. All of the above - Answers E. All of the above Which of the following is NOT a function of the medical record? A. To document the patient's progress B. To provide information for making decisions regarding the patient's care C. To serve as a legal document D. To share information between members of the patient's family - Answers D. To share information between members of the patient's family What is the purpose of the HIPAA Privacy Rule? A. Reduce exposure of patients to bloodborne pathogens B. Prevent the patient's records from being copied C. Encourage the patient to become more involved in preventive health care D. Provide patients with more control over the use and disclosure of their health information - Answers D. Provide patients with more control over the use and disclosure of their health information What is included in the patient registration record? A. Demographic and billing information B. Medication instructions given to the patient C. The results of the physical examination D. A list of problems associated with the patient's illness E. All of the above - Answers A. Demographic and billing information Which of the following demographic data must be included in the patient registration record in order to qualify for Medicare incentive payments? A. Birth place B. Siblings C. Ethnicity D. Current employer - Answers C. Ethnicity Which of the following provides subjective data about a patient to assist the physician in arriving at a diagnosis? A. Physical examination B. Diagnostic tests C. Health history D. Laboratory tests - Answers C. Health history Which of the following is included on a medication record for medication administered at the office? A. Name of the medication B. Route of administration C. Dosage administered D. Number of refills E. All of the above - Answers E. All of the above Which of the following services may be provided through home health care? A. IV therapy B. Respiratory care C. Rehabilitation D. Maternal-child care E. All of the above - Answers E. All of the above What type of report contains the results of of the analysis of body specimens? A. Progress report B. Diagnostic report C. Laboratory report D. Therapeutic report - Answers C. Laboratory report Which of the following is a physical therapy service? A. Hydrotherapy B. Dressing change C. Breathing treatment D. Activities of daily living - Answers A. Hydrotherapy Which of the following helps a patient with a disability learn new ways to perform skills such as dressing or cooking? A. Speech therapy B. Dietitian C. Physical therapy D. Occupational therapy - Answers D. Occupational therapy What term is used to describe a patient who has been admitted to the hospital for at least one overnight stay? A. Inpatient B. Outpatient C. Ambulatory patient D. Guest - Answers A Which of the following describes a surgical procedure? A. Discharge summary B. Emergency department report C. Operative report D. Consent form - Answers C Which of the following reports consists of an account of the significant events of a patient's hospitalization? A. History and physical report B. Pathology report C. Discharge summary report D. Emergency department report - Answers C Which of the following reports consists of a macroscopic and microscopic description of tissue removed during surgery? A. Laboratory report B. Pathology report C. Diagnostic imaging report D. Operative report - Answers B What procedure requires a consent to treatment form? A. Tuberculin skin testing B. Blood pressure measurement C. Sebaceous cyst removal D. Ear irrigation - Answers C Which of the following must be included in informed consent? A. An explanation of risks involved with the procedure B. Any alternative treatments or procedures available C. The prognosis D. The purpose of the recommended procedure E. All of the above - Answers E When a medical assistant witnesses a patient's signature, it means that he or she A. Verified that the information on the form is correct B. Verified that the physician discussed informed consent with the patient C. Verified the patient's identity and watched the patient sign the form D. Verified that the patient is aware of the risks involved with the procedure to be performed - Answers C Which of the following situations requires the completion of a release of medical information form? A. To determine the patient's eligibility for insurance benefits B. To bill the patient's insurance company C. To send the patient's records to a consulting physician D. When a patient transfers records to a new physician - Answers D Which of the following is NOT included on a release of medical information form? A. The expiration date of the release form B. The patient's signature C. The specific information to be released D. Medications being taken by the patient E. The need for the information - Answers D Which of the following can be performed by an electronic medical record software program? A. Creation of a medical record B. Storage of a medical record C. Editing of a medical record D. Retrieval of a medical record E. All of the above - Answers E In a source-oriented record, a radiology report is filed under which of the following chart dividers? A. History and Physical B. Lab/X-ray C. Hospital D. Progress Notes - Answers B With reverse chronological order, the most recent document is A. Placed in back of the other documents B. Filed by subject title C. Filed alphabetically D. Placed in front of the other documents - Answers D Which of the following is NOT included in the database section of a POR? A. Baseline laboratory test results B. Physical examination report C. Plan of treatment D. Health history report - Answers C The acronym for the format used to organize POR progress notes is A. PPR B. SOAP C. OSHA D. TGIF - Answers B The physician's interpretation of the patient's condition is recorded in POR progress notes under A. Subjective data B. Assessment C. Objective data D. Plan - Answers B The purpose of the tab on a file folder is to A. Hold documents in place in the folder CorrectB. Identify the contents of the folder C. Keep the folder closed when not in use D. Prevent the folder from being misfiled - Answers B Which of the following does NOT assist in the collection of data for a health history? A. Showing interest in the patient B. Calling the patient "honey" C. A quiet, comfortable room D. Showing concern for the patient - Answers B The health history is taken A. After the physician makes a diagnosis of the patient's condition B. After the physician performs the physical examination C. Before the physician performs the physical examination D. After laboratory test results are reviewed - Answers C What is the chief complaint? A. A tentative diagnosis of the patient's condition B. A detailed description of the patient's illness using medical terms C. The probable outcome of the patient's condition D. The symptom causing the patient the most trouble - Answers D Which of the following is a correct example for recording the chief complaint? A. "Burning in the chest and coughing for the past 2 days." B. "Complains of pain in the left shoulder." C. "The patient does not feel well today." D. "Otitis media that began following a cold." - Answers A An expansion of the chief complaint is known as the A. Provisional diagnosis B. Progress report C. Present illness D. Review of systems - Answers C What is the past medical history? A. The symptom causing the patient the most trouble B. The hereditary diseases and health of blood relatives C. The patient's previous diseases, injuries, and operations D. Information about the patient's lifestyle - Answers C A review of the health status of blood relatives is known as A. Chronological history B. Genetic review C. Review of systems D. Family history - Answers D The social history is important, because the following may affect the patient's condition: A. Past injuries B. Lifestyle C. Medications being taken by the patient D. Familial diseases - Answers B Which of the following is NOT included in the social history? A. Chronic illnesses B. Health habits C. Occupation D. Dietary history - Answers A What term is used to describe the process of making written entries about a patient in the medical record? A. Scribbling B. Charting C. Documentation D. Registration - Answers C Why should black ink be used when recording in the patient's paper medical record? A. Reduce charting errors B. Ensure legible handwriting C. Avoid spelling errors D. Provide a permanent record - Answers D Why should a procedure be charted immediately after being performed? A. Prevent another staff member from charting the procedure B. Avoid performing the wrong procedure on a patient C. Avoid charting the procedure out of sequence D. Avoid forgetting certain aspects of the procedure - Answers D Which of the following is the correct way to sign a charting entry in a paper medical record? A. Dawn C. Bennett, CMA (AAMA) B. D. Bennett, CMA (AAMA) C. Bennett, CMA (AAMA) D. D.B., CMA (AAMA) - Answers B What is the purpose of progress notes? A. Ensure that the patient returns for follow-up care B. Provide a review of each body system C. Update the medical record with new patient information D. Prevent the patient's condition from getting worse - Answers C What is a symptom? A. Any change in the body or its functioning that indicates disease B. The scientific method of identifying a patient's condition C. Conclusions drawn from an interpretation of data D. The probable outcome of a disease - Answers A What is an objective symptom? A. The symptom causing the patient the most trouble B. A symptom that can be observed by another person C. A symptom that is felt by the patient and cannot be observed by another D. A symptom that precedes a disease - Answers B Why should laboratory tests ordered on a patient at an outside laboratory be documented in the medical record? A. In case the test results are abnormal. B. In case the patient's condition gets worse. C. In case the test results are negative. D. In case the patient does not undergo the test. - Answers D Why is it important to document any instructions provided to the patient? A. To provide a record for the insurance company B. To ensure that the patient follows the instructions C. To ensure that the patient understands the instructions provided D. To protect the physician legally if the patient is harmed by not following the instructions - Answers D What other symptom is often present with skin flushing? A. The patient has an elevated temperature B. The patient is experiencing pain C. The patient has chills D. The patient has a rash - Answers A A yellow color of the skin that is first observed in the whites of the eyes is called A. Pallor B. Jaundice C. Hepatitis D. Cyanosis - Answers B A decrease in the amount of water in the body is known as A. Dehydration B. Edema C. Acidosis D. Epistaxis - Answers A What term is used to describe excessive perspiration? A. Dehydration B. Diaphoresis C. Edema D. Hyperemesis - Answers B What term is used to describe dizziness? A. Epistaxis B. Vertigo C. Urticaria D. Pruritus - Answers B The study of drugs is known as A. Pharmacy B. Immunology C. Mycology D. Pharmacology - Answers D Which of the following is an example of administering medication? A. A physician gives a patient drug samples to take at home. B. A medical assistant performs a venipuncture. C. The physician writes a prescription for a medication. D. A medical assistant gives an IM injection to a patient. - Answers D The term parenteral refers to Topical administration of medication B. Sites located outside the gastrointestinal tract C. Intramuscular injection sites D. Administration of medication PO - Answers B Which of the following references could you use to look up the adverse reactions of Zithromax? A. United States Pharmacopeia B. Physicians' Desk Reference C. National Formulary D. The Farmer's Almanac - Answers B Which of the following medications is administered through the sublingual route? A. Heparin B. Penicillin C. Lisinopril D. Nitroglycerin - Answers D The reason for enterically coating a tablet is to A. Allow the medication to dissolve slowly B. Prevent the medication from irritating the stomach lining C. Prevent the medication from being destroyed by intestinal enzymes D. Reduce the incidence of side effects - Answers B Which of the following represents an equivalent value for a cubic centimeter? A. 1 cc- 1 mg B. 1 cc - 1 ml C. 1 cc - 1 drop D. 1 cc - 1 unit - Answers B Which of the following systems is used most often to prescribe and administer medication? A. Avoirdupois B. Metric C. Household D. Apothecary - Answers B Which of the following is NOT a unit of weight? A. Kilogram B. Milligram C. Milliliter D. Gram - Answers C Which of the following is a unit of volume? A. Inch B. Grain C. Centimeter D. Liter - Answers D Which of the following must be included in a prescription for a controlled drug? A. Schedule category of the drug B. Lot number of the drug C. Physician's DEA number D. Patient's Social Security number - Answers C Which of the following categories includes drugs that have a high potential for abuse and accepted medical use? A. Schedule I B. Schedule IV C. Schedule II D. Schedule III - Answers C Which of the following should be recorded in a patient's medication record? A. Prescription medications B. Nonprescription medications C. Vitamins D. Herbal products E. All of the above - Answers E Which of the following situations causes a drug to be absorbed at a slower rate? A. An allergic reaction B. A drug interaction C. A drug tolerance D. An idiosyncratic reaction - Answers A When the same dose of a drug no longer produces the desired effect, it is said that the patient has developed A. An allergic reaction B. A drug interaction C. A drug tolerance D. An idiosyncratic reaction - Answers C The early symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction include A. Dyspnea, decreased blood pressure, thready pulse B. Abdominal cramping, nausea, vomiting, fever C. Diplopia, diaphoresis, tachycardia, increased blood pressure D. Sneezing, hives, erythema, angioedema, disorientation - Answers D What is the usual treatment for an anaphylactic reaction? A. Steroid injection B. Antibiotic injection