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NUR 242 Exam 4 2026 | Endocrine, Renal, GI, Respiratory, Cardiovascular, Neuro | 300 Questions With Correct Answers & Rationales | A+ Grade Guaranteed

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Pass the NUR 242 Exam 4 on your first attempt with this comprehensive question bank. This document contains 300 actual exam-style questions with verified answers and detailed rationales covering all major nursing content areas tested on Exam 4. What's included: 300 questions mirroring the format and difficulty of the actual NUR 242 Exam 4 Detailed rationales explaining the "why" behind every answer Latest 2026 updates reflecting current nursing practice guidelines Covers all exam domains – Endocrine, Renal/GU, GI, Respiratory, Cardiovascular, Neuro Topics covered: Endocrine Disorders (Questions 1-50) Diabetes mellitus (hypoglycemia management, insulin types, mixing insulin, DKA vs. HHS, HbA1c interpretation) Hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease, thyroid storm, exophthalmos, PTU, methimazole, propranolol, radioactive iodine) Hypothyroidism (levothyroxine administration, myxedema coma, TSH interpretation) Cushing syndrome vs. Addison disease (steroid tapering, stress dosing, adrenal crisis) Hyperparathyroidism (hypercalcemia, fluids, kidney stones) Hypoparathyroidism (hypocalcemia, tetany, Chvostek/Trousseau signs) Diabetes insipidus (polyuria, polydipsia, desmopressin, low specific gravity) SIADH (hyponatremia, fluid restriction, 3% saline) Pheochromocytoma (paroxysmal hypertension, alpha-blockers) GLP-1 agonists, SGLT2 inhibitors, pioglitazone, pramlintide Osteoporosis (alendronate administration, T-score interpretation) Paget's disease, osteomalacia Gout (allopurinol, fluid intake), pseudogout (crystal identification) Renal & Urinary Disorders (Questions 51-100) Chronic kidney disease (hyperkalemia management, phosphate binders, anemia treatment, AV fistula assessment, low-protein diet, GFR staging) Acute kidney injury (prerenal vs. intrarenal vs. postrenal, oliguria, diuretic phase) Hemodialysis (complications, URR, AV fistula thrill/bruit) Peritoneal dialysis (cloudy outflow indicating peritonitis) Urinary tract infections (ciprofloxacin dairy separation, TMP-SMX rash, phenazopyridine orange urine, nitrofurantoin pulmonary toxicity) Pyelonephritis vs. cystitis (fever, flank pain, WBC casts) Acute glomerulonephritis (cola-colored urine, periorbital edema, sodium/fluid restriction) Nephrotic syndrome (proteinuria, edema, hypoalbuminemia) Nephrolithiasis (renal colic, fluids, strain urine) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (straining, urinary retention) Renal cell carcinoma (classic triad), bladder cancer (painless hematuria) Gastrointestinal Disorders (Questions 101-150) Cirrhosis (ascites, asterixis, esophageal varices bleeding precautions, prolonged PT/INR, lactulose for encephalopathy, low-sodium diet, paracentesis complications) Peptic ulcer disease (omeprazole administration, sucralfate, melena, black tarry stools) Ulcerative colitis vs. Crohn's disease (sulfasalazine, mesalamine, infliximab, fistula, perianal abscess, toxic megacolon) Acute pancreatitis (epigastric pain radiating to back, Cullen sign, Turner sign, hypocalcemia, NPO, meperidine seizure risk) Cholelithiasis (Murphy sign, cholecystitis) Diverticulitis (clear liquid diet) Small bowel obstruction (NG tube, feculent drainage, hypokalemia) Colostomy (stoma assessment, purple/dusky = ischemia, diet teaching, gas prevention) GERD (famotidine, head of bed elevation, avoid chocolate/peppermint) Hepatitis A (fecal-oral transmission) NG tube irrigation (normal saline only) Respiratory Disorders (Questions 151-200) Asthma (albuterol for rescue vs. fluticasone for control, spacer use, peak flow meter zones, silent chest emergency, status asthmaticus) COPD (barrel chest, oxygen target 88-92%, hypoxic drive, theophylline toxicity, ipratropium, tiotropium, home oxygen safety) Pneumonia (pneumococcal - rust-colored sputum, consolidation, V/Q mismatch, sputum culture before antibiotics) Pulmonary embolism (heparin, warfarin, D-dimer, massive PE with hypotension, thrombolytics) Tuberculosis (airborne precautions, N95 respirator, 6-9 months treatment) Chest tubes (tidalizing normal, continuous bubbling = air leak, water seal, keep below chest level) Pneumothorax (tension pneumothorax needle decompression) Mechanical ventilation (high-pressure alarm = suction) Bacterial meningitis (CSF findings: cloudy, low glucose, high neutrophils, Kernig/Brudzinski signs) Cardiovascular Disorders (Questions 201-250) Heart failure (right-sided vs. left-sided, ejection fraction, furosemide administration, daily weights, spironolactone hyperkalemia, carvedilol beta-blocker, high Fowler's position) Hypertension (lifestyle modifications, hydrochlorothiazide, verapamil grapefruit juice) Coronary artery disease (stable angina, unstable angina, aspirin first for MI) Myocardial infarction (aspirin first, nitroglycerin, morphine, cardiac catheterization post-op care) Atrial fibrillation (digoxin toxicity, amiodarone pulmonary fibrosis, synchronized cardioversion for unstable) Anticoagulation (heparin aPTT, protamine sulfate, warfarin INR, vitamin K, HIT, enoxaparin abdominal injection) Peripheral arterial disease (intermittent claudication, ABI interpretation, arterial ulcer characteristics) Chronic venous insufficiency (brownish discoloration, leg elevation) Infective endocarditis (splinter hemorrhages) Pericarditis (friction rub) Aortic stenosis (syncope with exercise) Antiplatelets (clopidogrel, melena = GI bleed) DOACs (dabigatran, rivaroxaban) Neurologic Disorders (Questions 251-300) Stroke (left vs. right hemisphere, tPA window 3-4.5 hours, permissive hypertension, NIHSS, TIA, carotid endarterectomy, dysphagia, aphasia, neglect, homonymous hemianopsia, fever and hyperglycemia management) Increased intracranial pressure (Cushing triad: hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations, ICP monitoring, mannitol, HOB 30 degrees) Seizure disorders (phenytoin gingival hyperplasia and toxicity, valproic acid hepatotoxicity, lamotrigine rash, status epilepticus benzodiazepines) Parkinson's disease (carbidopa-levodopa, bradykinesia, high-protein meal decreases absorption) Alzheimer's disease (donepezil, slows progression) Myasthenia gravis (pyridostigmine before meals, fatigable weakness) Guillain-Barré syndrome (ascending paralysis, respiratory function priority) Multiple sclerosis (corticosteroids for exacerbation) Huntington's disease (chorea, safety precautions) Spinal cord injury (autonomic dysreflexia - bladder distention trigger, C5 injury respiratory compromise) Traumatic brain injury (GCS ≤8 = intubation, CSF rhinorrhea - no nose blowing) Subarachnoid hemorrhage (thunderclap headache, nimodipine for vasospasm, Hunt and Hess grading, hyponatremia from SIADH or CSW) Epidural hematoma (lucid interval, arterial bleeding) Subdural hematoma (gradual decline, venous bleeding, anticoagulated elderly) Perfect for: NUR 242 nursing students preparing for Exam 4 RN students in medical-surgical nursing courses NCLEX-RN candidates reviewing endocrine, renal, GI, respiratory, cardiovascular, and neuro content LPN-to-RN bridge program students Why choose this guide: 300 questions with the same format as the actual NUR 242 Exam 4 Verified answers based on current nursing practice standards Detailed rationales that teach the clinical reasoning High-yield topics identified for efficient studying All domains covered in one complete document Immediate download – study on your schedule Guaranteed to help you pass NUR 242 Exam 4!

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Voorbeeld van de inhoud

NUR 242 Exam 4 – Med-Surg Concepts – Complete
300-Question Practice Exam Galen College of Nursing
| 2026/2027 Academic Year

Section 1: Endocrine Disorders (Questions 1-50)
1. A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL and
is conscious. What is the nurse's priority action?
A) Administer insulin
B) Give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
C) Administer glucagon IM
D) Call the provider
Answer: B – The "rule of 15" for conscious hypoglycemia: give 15 g of fast-
acting carbohydrate (4 oz juice, 3-4 glucose tablets, 1 tbsp honey or sugar).
Recheck blood glucose in 15 minutes.
2. A client with hyperthyroidism is prescribed propylthiouracil (PTU). The
nurse should monitor for which adverse effect?
A) Agranulocytosis
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Weight gain
D) Bradycardia
Answer: A – PTU and methimazole can cause agranulocytosis (fever, sore
throat, infection). CBC should be monitored. Instruct the client to report
signs of infection immediately.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus has an HbA1c of 9.2%. The nurse
interprets this as:
A) Excellent control
B) Poor control over the past 2-3 months

,C) Acute hyperglycemia
D) Lab error
Answer: B – HbA1c reflects average blood glucose over 2-3 months. Target
is <7%. 9.2% indicates poor control requiring intervention.
4. A client with hyperthyroidism has exophthalmos. What nursing
intervention is most appropriate?
A) Apply artificial tears
B) Elevate the head of the bed
C) Tape the eyelids closed at night
D) All of the above
Answer: D – Exophthalmos (proptosis) causes dry eyes, photophobia, and
corneal irritation. Interventions include artificial tears, head elevation, and
taping eyelids closed at night if incomplete closure.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus is NPO for surgery. What should the nurse
do about the client's morning insulin?
A) Administer the full dose
B) Hold all insulin
C) Call the provider for an order
D) Administer half the dose
Answer: C – Insulin requirements change when NPO. The provider must
give a specific order for insulin adjustment.
6. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. The nurse
should teach the client to take this medication:
A) With food
B) On an empty stomach, 30-60 minutes before breakfast
C) At bedtime with a snack
D) With antacids

,Answer: B – Levothyroxine absorption is impaired by food, calcium, iron,
and antacids. It should be taken on an empty stomach with water.
7. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin. The nurse should
instruct the client to:
A) Take on an empty stomach
B) Take with meals to reduce GI side effects
C) Expect weight gain
D) Avoid carbohydrates
Answer: B – Metformin commonly causes GI side effects (nausea,
diarrhea). Taking with meals reduces these effects.
8. A client with hyperthyroidism has a thyroid storm. Which finding is
expected?
A) Hypothermia
B) Bradycardia
C) Hyperthermia and tachycardia
D) Hypotension
Answer: C – Thyroid storm is a life-threatening emergency with
hyperthermia (fever >104°F), tachycardia (>140/min), agitation, and
delirium.
9. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed regular insulin at 7:30 AM.
The nurse should anticipate the peak effect at:
A) 8:00-9:00 AM
B) 9:30-11:30 AM
C) 1:00-3:00 PM
D) 5:00-7:00 PM

, Answer: B – Regular insulin has an onset of 30-60 minutes and peaks at 2-
4 hours (9:30-11:30 AM). The client is at highest risk for hypoglycemia
during the peak.
10. A client with hypothyroidism has myxedema coma. What is the priority
nursing intervention?
A) Airway and breathing
B) Administering levothyroxine IV
C) Warming the client gradually
D) Administering IV fluids
Answer: A – Myxedema coma is a medical emergency. Airway, breathing,
and circulation are the priority. Hypothermia requires gradual rewarming.
11. A client with diabetes mellitus is prescribed insulin glargine at bedtime.
The nurse should teach the client that this insulin:
A) Peaks in 4-6 hours
B) Has no pronounced peak
C) Should be mixed with regular insulin
D) Can be given IV
Answer: B – Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting, peakless insulin that
provides basal coverage for approximately 24 hours.
12. A client with Cushing's syndrome has a moon face and buffalo hump.
The nurse should monitor for:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypotension
C) Hypokalemia
D) Weight loss

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