NUR 210 Nursing Fundamentals Week 5 Study Guide Quiz 2026
|Galen College
1. Which clinical manifestation is considered an early sign of hypoxia?
A. Cyanosis
B. Hypotension
C. Bradycardia
D. Restlessness
Answer: D
Rationale: Restlessness and apprehension are early indicators of hypoxia as the brain
responds to decreased oxygen levels. Cyanosis and bradycardia are typically late signs.
2. When assessing a patient with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min, the nurse
would document this as:
A. Tachypnea
B. Bradypnea
C. Eupnea
D. Apnea
Answer: A
Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths/minute in an
adult. Eupnea is normal, while bradypnea is slow breathing.
,3. The nurse is caring for a patient in respiratory distress. Which position should
the nurse place the patient in first to facilitate maximum lung expansion?
A. High-Fowler’s
B. Prone
C. Supine
D. Sims’
Answer: A
Rationale: High-Fowler’s position allows the abdominal organs to drop away from the
diaphragm, permitting maximum lung expansion.
4. Which oxygen delivery device provides the most precise concentration of
oxygen?
A. Nasal cannula
B. Simple face mask
C. Non-rebreather mask
D. Venturi mask
Answer: D
Rationale: The Venturi mask uses specific orifices to deliver a precise FiO2 regardless of
the patient’s respiratory rate or depth.
5. What is the primary purpose of incentive spirometry?
A. To measure forced expiratory volume
B. To administer inhaled medications
C. To prevent or treat atelectasis
D. To monitor oxygen saturation
Answer: C
Rationale: Incentive spirometry encourages deep breathing and helps keep the alveoli
open, which prevents atelectasis (collapse of lung tissue).
, 6. The nurse is suctioning a patient’s tracheostomy. What is the maximum
amount of time suction should be applied?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 to 15 seconds
C. 20 to 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10-15 seconds per pass to prevent hypoxemia
and trauma to the tracheal mucosa.
7. A nurse identifies that a patient has a pulse deficit. How is this calculated?
A. Subtracting the diastolic BP from the systolic BP
B. Subtracting the radial pulse from the apical pulse
C. Adding the apical and radial pulses together
D. Subtracting the respiratory rate from the pulse rate
Answer: B
Rationale: A pulse deficit occurs when the apical heart rate is higher than the radial pulse
rate, indicating that some heartbeats are not reaching the periphery.
8. Which sound is heard during Phase 1 of Korotkoff sounds when measuring
blood pressure?
A. A soft swishing sound
B. A distinct thumping sound
C. A muffled sound
D. The disappearance of sound
Answer: B
Rationale: Phase 1 is characterized by the first appearance of faint but clear
tapping/thumping sounds that gradually increase in intensity; this represents the systolic
pressure.
|Galen College
1. Which clinical manifestation is considered an early sign of hypoxia?
A. Cyanosis
B. Hypotension
C. Bradycardia
D. Restlessness
Answer: D
Rationale: Restlessness and apprehension are early indicators of hypoxia as the brain
responds to decreased oxygen levels. Cyanosis and bradycardia are typically late signs.
2. When assessing a patient with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min, the nurse
would document this as:
A. Tachypnea
B. Bradypnea
C. Eupnea
D. Apnea
Answer: A
Rationale: Tachypnea is defined as a respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths/minute in an
adult. Eupnea is normal, while bradypnea is slow breathing.
,3. The nurse is caring for a patient in respiratory distress. Which position should
the nurse place the patient in first to facilitate maximum lung expansion?
A. High-Fowler’s
B. Prone
C. Supine
D. Sims’
Answer: A
Rationale: High-Fowler’s position allows the abdominal organs to drop away from the
diaphragm, permitting maximum lung expansion.
4. Which oxygen delivery device provides the most precise concentration of
oxygen?
A. Nasal cannula
B. Simple face mask
C. Non-rebreather mask
D. Venturi mask
Answer: D
Rationale: The Venturi mask uses specific orifices to deliver a precise FiO2 regardless of
the patient’s respiratory rate or depth.
5. What is the primary purpose of incentive spirometry?
A. To measure forced expiratory volume
B. To administer inhaled medications
C. To prevent or treat atelectasis
D. To monitor oxygen saturation
Answer: C
Rationale: Incentive spirometry encourages deep breathing and helps keep the alveoli
open, which prevents atelectasis (collapse of lung tissue).
, 6. The nurse is suctioning a patient’s tracheostomy. What is the maximum
amount of time suction should be applied?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 to 15 seconds
C. 20 to 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
Answer: B
Rationale: Suctioning should be limited to 10-15 seconds per pass to prevent hypoxemia
and trauma to the tracheal mucosa.
7. A nurse identifies that a patient has a pulse deficit. How is this calculated?
A. Subtracting the diastolic BP from the systolic BP
B. Subtracting the radial pulse from the apical pulse
C. Adding the apical and radial pulses together
D. Subtracting the respiratory rate from the pulse rate
Answer: B
Rationale: A pulse deficit occurs when the apical heart rate is higher than the radial pulse
rate, indicating that some heartbeats are not reaching the periphery.
8. Which sound is heard during Phase 1 of Korotkoff sounds when measuring
blood pressure?
A. A soft swishing sound
B. A distinct thumping sound
C. A muffled sound
D. The disappearance of sound
Answer: B
Rationale: Phase 1 is characterized by the first appearance of faint but clear
tapping/thumping sounds that gradually increase in intensity; this represents the systolic
pressure.
