NUR 230: Maternal & Pediatric Nursing (Exam 9) 2026 |Galen College
1. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation who reports
painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Preterm labor
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the
second or third trimester. Abruptio placentae typically involves painful bleeding and a rigid
abdomen.
2. Which medication is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity in a client
being treated for preeclampsia?
A. Naloxone
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Terbutaline
D. Hydralazine
Answer: B
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the specific antidote used to reverse magnesium sulfate
toxicity, which can manifest as respiratory depression and loss of deep tendon reflexes.
,3. In the ‘VEAL CHOP’ acronym for fetal heart rate monitoring, what does ‘Late
Decelerations’ correspond to?
A. Cord compression
B. Head compression
C. Other (Accelerations)
D. Placental insufficiency
Answer: D
Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and require
immediate nursing intervention such as repositioning and oxygen administration.
4. A nurse is caring for a client in the fourth stage of labor. The fundus is noted
to be boggy and displaced to the right. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer oxytocin IV
B. Assist the client to void
C. Massage the fundus until firm
D. Notify the provider immediately
Answer: B
Rationale: A fundus displaced to the right usually indicates a full bladder. Assisting the
client to void allows the uterus to contract effectively, preventing postpartum hemorrhage.
5. Which assessment finding is a classic sign of pyloric stenosis in an infant?
A. Currant jelly stools
B. Projectile vomiting
C. Ribbon-like stools
D. Abdominal distention
Answer: B
Rationale: Projectile vomiting shortly after feeding is the hallmark sign of hypertrophic
pyloric stenosis, often accompanied by an olive-shaped mass in the epigastrium.
, 6. A child is admitted with suspected epiglottitis. Which action should the nurse
avoid?
A. Monitoring oxygen saturation
B. Using a tongue blade to visualize the throat
C. Administering humidified oxygen
D. Keeping the child in an upright position
Answer: B
Rationale: Attempting to visualize the throat with a tongue blade or swab can trigger a
laryngospasm and complete airway obstruction in a child with epiglottitis.
7. At which age does a child usually transition from the ‘Trust vs. Mistrust’ stage
to ‘Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt’ according to Erikson?
A. 18 months
B. 12 months
C. 6 months
D. 3 years
Answer: A
Rationale: Erikson’s stage of Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt typically begins around 18
months and lasts until 3 years of age.
8. A newborn has an APGAR score of 9 at 1 minute. Which of the following
would most likely account for the deduction of one point?
A. Heart rate of 110
B. Weak cry
C. Slow respirations
D. Acrocyanosis
Answer: D
1. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation who reports
painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placentae
C. Preterm labor
D. Ectopic pregnancy
Answer: A
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the
second or third trimester. Abruptio placentae typically involves painful bleeding and a rigid
abdomen.
2. Which medication is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity in a client
being treated for preeclampsia?
A. Naloxone
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Terbutaline
D. Hydralazine
Answer: B
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the specific antidote used to reverse magnesium sulfate
toxicity, which can manifest as respiratory depression and loss of deep tendon reflexes.
,3. In the ‘VEAL CHOP’ acronym for fetal heart rate monitoring, what does ‘Late
Decelerations’ correspond to?
A. Cord compression
B. Head compression
C. Other (Accelerations)
D. Placental insufficiency
Answer: D
Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and require
immediate nursing intervention such as repositioning and oxygen administration.
4. A nurse is caring for a client in the fourth stage of labor. The fundus is noted
to be boggy and displaced to the right. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer oxytocin IV
B. Assist the client to void
C. Massage the fundus until firm
D. Notify the provider immediately
Answer: B
Rationale: A fundus displaced to the right usually indicates a full bladder. Assisting the
client to void allows the uterus to contract effectively, preventing postpartum hemorrhage.
5. Which assessment finding is a classic sign of pyloric stenosis in an infant?
A. Currant jelly stools
B. Projectile vomiting
C. Ribbon-like stools
D. Abdominal distention
Answer: B
Rationale: Projectile vomiting shortly after feeding is the hallmark sign of hypertrophic
pyloric stenosis, often accompanied by an olive-shaped mass in the epigastrium.
, 6. A child is admitted with suspected epiglottitis. Which action should the nurse
avoid?
A. Monitoring oxygen saturation
B. Using a tongue blade to visualize the throat
C. Administering humidified oxygen
D. Keeping the child in an upright position
Answer: B
Rationale: Attempting to visualize the throat with a tongue blade or swab can trigger a
laryngospasm and complete airway obstruction in a child with epiglottitis.
7. At which age does a child usually transition from the ‘Trust vs. Mistrust’ stage
to ‘Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt’ according to Erikson?
A. 18 months
B. 12 months
C. 6 months
D. 3 years
Answer: A
Rationale: Erikson’s stage of Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt typically begins around 18
months and lasts until 3 years of age.
8. A newborn has an APGAR score of 9 at 1 minute. Which of the following
would most likely account for the deduction of one point?
A. Heart rate of 110
B. Weak cry
C. Slow respirations
D. Acrocyanosis
Answer: D
