Actual ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Exit
Exam with NGN 100% Verified Answers 100 Questions
to Pass 2026 RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2026
Exit Exam with NGN 100 Q & A|Updated!!
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 – NGN Practice Exam
Questions 1–10: Multiple Choice (1 point each)
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports sudden dyspnea, crackles in
lung bases, and coughing pink, frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
B. Administer furosemide IV push
C. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 100% oxygen
D. Obtain a stat chest x-ray
Answer: A
Rationale: High-Fowler’s position reduces venous return and decreases preload, helping
alleviate pulmonary edema. Oxygen is important, but positioning is the immediate first
action.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin.
Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A. “I will take ibuprofen for headaches.”
B. “I will eat more leafy green vegetables daily.”
C. “I will get my INR checked regularly.”
D. “I will stop warfarin if I see bruising.”
Answer: C
Rationale: INR monitoring is essential to maintain therapeutic range (2-3). Ibuprofen
increases bleeding risk; greens affect warfarin efficacy; never stop without provider order.
3. A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who reports chest pain
radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, and nausea. Which lab value is most important to
obtain immediately?
A. Troponin I
,B. BNP
C. D-dimer
D. Creatinine
Answer: A
Rationale: Troponin is the cardiac biomarker of choice for myocardial infarction. BNP is for
heart failure; D-dimer for PE; creatinine for kidney function.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who started taking
fluoxetine 2 days ago. Which statement by the client requires immediate action?
A. “I feel more tired than usual.”
B. “I still feel sad most of the day.”
C. “I have a plan to kill myself with pills.”
D. “I have a mild headache.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Suicidal plan is a psychiatric emergency. SSRIs take 4-6 weeks for full effect, and
suicide risk may initially increase.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with atrial fibrillation. The client’s
apical pulse is 52 bpm. What should the nurse do first?
A. Administer the digoxin as ordered
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Check the digoxin level
D. Reassess the pulse in 30 minutes
Answer: B
Rationale: Hold digoxin for pulse <60 bpm (adult) and notify provider due to risk of toxicity.
6. A nurse is teaching a client with type 1 diabetes about sick-day rules. Which statement
indicates correct understanding?
A. “I will stop insulin when I can’t eat.”
B. “I will check my blood glucose every 4 hours.”
C. “I will drink sugar-free liquids only.”
D. “I will call my provider if my glucose is over 200 mg/dL.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Check glucose q4h during illness; never stop insulin; drink fluids with calories if
needed; call for >250-300 mg/dL.
, 7. A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is Rh-negative and just delivered an Rh-
positive newborn. Which medication should the nurse administer?
A. Oxytocin
B. Rho(D) immune globulin
C. Methylergonovine
D. Magnesium sulfate
Answer: B
Rationale: RhoGAM prevents maternal sensitization to Rh-positive blood. Given within 72
hours of delivery.
8. A nurse is assessing a client with cirrhosis who has asterixis. Which lab finding is most
consistent with this finding?
A. Elevated ammonia
B. Low albumin
C. Elevated bilirubin
D. Low platelets
Answer: A
Rationale: Asterixis (liver flap) is associated with hepatic encephalopathy due to elevated
ammonia.
9. A charge nurse is making assignments on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should be
assigned to an LPN?
A. Client with new tracheostomy requiring suctioning q1h
B. Client post-appendectomy day 2 with stable vital signs
C. Client receiving IV heparin with PTT 98 seconds
D. Client with chest tube and continuous bubbling in water seal chamber
Answer: B
Rationale: LPNs can care for stable, predictable clients. Options A, C, D require RN
assessment or complex monitoring.
10. A nurse is administering IV potassium chloride. Which action is correct?
A. Administer via IV push over 5 minutes
B. Dilute in IV fluid and infuse via pump at ≤10 mEq/hour
C. Give undiluted through a central line only
D. Mix with lactated Ringer’s solution
Exam with NGN 100% Verified Answers 100 Questions
to Pass 2026 RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor 2026
Exit Exam with NGN 100 Q & A|Updated!!
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 – NGN Practice Exam
Questions 1–10: Multiple Choice (1 point each)
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who reports sudden dyspnea, crackles in
lung bases, and coughing pink, frothy sputum. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
B. Administer furosemide IV push
C. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 100% oxygen
D. Obtain a stat chest x-ray
Answer: A
Rationale: High-Fowler’s position reduces venous return and decreases preload, helping
alleviate pulmonary edema. Oxygen is important, but positioning is the immediate first
action.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin.
Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
A. “I will take ibuprofen for headaches.”
B. “I will eat more leafy green vegetables daily.”
C. “I will get my INR checked regularly.”
D. “I will stop warfarin if I see bruising.”
Answer: C
Rationale: INR monitoring is essential to maintain therapeutic range (2-3). Ibuprofen
increases bleeding risk; greens affect warfarin efficacy; never stop without provider order.
3. A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who reports chest pain
radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, and nausea. Which lab value is most important to
obtain immediately?
A. Troponin I
,B. BNP
C. D-dimer
D. Creatinine
Answer: A
Rationale: Troponin is the cardiac biomarker of choice for myocardial infarction. BNP is for
heart failure; D-dimer for PE; creatinine for kidney function.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who started taking
fluoxetine 2 days ago. Which statement by the client requires immediate action?
A. “I feel more tired than usual.”
B. “I still feel sad most of the day.”
C. “I have a plan to kill myself with pills.”
D. “I have a mild headache.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Suicidal plan is a psychiatric emergency. SSRIs take 4-6 weeks for full effect, and
suicide risk may initially increase.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with atrial fibrillation. The client’s
apical pulse is 52 bpm. What should the nurse do first?
A. Administer the digoxin as ordered
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Check the digoxin level
D. Reassess the pulse in 30 minutes
Answer: B
Rationale: Hold digoxin for pulse <60 bpm (adult) and notify provider due to risk of toxicity.
6. A nurse is teaching a client with type 1 diabetes about sick-day rules. Which statement
indicates correct understanding?
A. “I will stop insulin when I can’t eat.”
B. “I will check my blood glucose every 4 hours.”
C. “I will drink sugar-free liquids only.”
D. “I will call my provider if my glucose is over 200 mg/dL.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Check glucose q4h during illness; never stop insulin; drink fluids with calories if
needed; call for >250-300 mg/dL.
, 7. A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is Rh-negative and just delivered an Rh-
positive newborn. Which medication should the nurse administer?
A. Oxytocin
B. Rho(D) immune globulin
C. Methylergonovine
D. Magnesium sulfate
Answer: B
Rationale: RhoGAM prevents maternal sensitization to Rh-positive blood. Given within 72
hours of delivery.
8. A nurse is assessing a client with cirrhosis who has asterixis. Which lab finding is most
consistent with this finding?
A. Elevated ammonia
B. Low albumin
C. Elevated bilirubin
D. Low platelets
Answer: A
Rationale: Asterixis (liver flap) is associated with hepatic encephalopathy due to elevated
ammonia.
9. A charge nurse is making assignments on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should be
assigned to an LPN?
A. Client with new tracheostomy requiring suctioning q1h
B. Client post-appendectomy day 2 with stable vital signs
C. Client receiving IV heparin with PTT 98 seconds
D. Client with chest tube and continuous bubbling in water seal chamber
Answer: B
Rationale: LPNs can care for stable, predictable clients. Options A, C, D require RN
assessment or complex monitoring.
10. A nurse is administering IV potassium chloride. Which action is correct?
A. Administer via IV push over 5 minutes
B. Dilute in IV fluid and infuse via pump at ≤10 mEq/hour
C. Give undiluted through a central line only
D. Mix with lactated Ringer’s solution
