NUR 265 Advanced Medical-Surgical Nursing Exam 8 2026 |Galen
College
1. During a mass casualty incident, a patient arrives with a sucking chest wound
and gasping respirations. Which triage tag should be assigned?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Black
Answer: C
Rationale: Red tags are for immediate life-threatening injuries that require rapid
intervention to survive, such as airway or breathing compromises.
2. In the primary survey of a trauma patient, what does the ‘C’ in ABCDE
represent?
A. Cervical spine stabilization
B. Circulation and hemorrhage control
C. Cardiac monitoring
D. Consciousness level
Answer: B
Rationale: In the primary survey, ‘C’ stands for Circulation, focusing on assessing pulses,
skin color, and controlling external hemorrhage.
,3. A patient in the early stage of septic shock typically exhibits which
hemodynamic profile?
A. Low cardiac output and high systemic vascular resistance
B. Low cardiac output and low systemic vascular resistance
C. High cardiac output and low systemic vascular resistance
D. Normal cardiac output and high systemic vascular resistance
Answer: C
Rationale: The early (warm) phase of septic shock is characterized by vasodilation (low
SVR) and a compensatory increase in cardiac output.
4. Which assessment finding is a hallmark sign of neurogenic shock?
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Bradycardia
D. Cool, clammy skin
Answer: C
Rationale: Neurogenic shock is unique because it causes bradycardia due to the loss of
sympathetic tone, whereas other shocks usually cause tachycardia.
5. Using the Parkland Formula, calculate the total fluid resuscitation needed in
the first 24 hours for a 70kg patient with 40% TBSA burns.
A. 11,200 mL
B. 8,400 mL
C. 5,600 mL
D. 14,000 mL
Answer: A
Rationale: Parkland Formula: 4mL x weight(kg) x %TBSA. 4 x 70 x 40 = 11,200 mL.
, 6. When administering the calculated Parkland fluid volume, how much of the
total should be given in the first 8 hours post-injury?
A. One-half
B. One-third
C. One-quarter
D. The entire amount
Answer: A
Rationale: Half of the total calculated 24-hour fluid volume is administered in the first 8
hours from the time of the burn injury.
7. A patient with a high-voltage electrical burn is at greatest risk for which
immediate complication?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Cardiac dysrhythmias
C. Hypothermia
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: Electrical currents passing through the body can disrupt the heart’s electrical
system, leading to lethal dysrhythmias or cardiac arrest.
8. Which clinical finding is most suggestive of an inhalation injury in a burn
victim?
A. Hypotension
B. Blisters on the chest
C. Singed nasal hairs and soot in sputum
D. Decreased bowel sounds
Answer: C
Rationale: Physical indicators like singed nasal hairs, soot in the mouth/sputum, and facial
burns suggest potential airway damage from heat or smoke.
College
1. During a mass casualty incident, a patient arrives with a sucking chest wound
and gasping respirations. Which triage tag should be assigned?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Black
Answer: C
Rationale: Red tags are for immediate life-threatening injuries that require rapid
intervention to survive, such as airway or breathing compromises.
2. In the primary survey of a trauma patient, what does the ‘C’ in ABCDE
represent?
A. Cervical spine stabilization
B. Circulation and hemorrhage control
C. Cardiac monitoring
D. Consciousness level
Answer: B
Rationale: In the primary survey, ‘C’ stands for Circulation, focusing on assessing pulses,
skin color, and controlling external hemorrhage.
,3. A patient in the early stage of septic shock typically exhibits which
hemodynamic profile?
A. Low cardiac output and high systemic vascular resistance
B. Low cardiac output and low systemic vascular resistance
C. High cardiac output and low systemic vascular resistance
D. Normal cardiac output and high systemic vascular resistance
Answer: C
Rationale: The early (warm) phase of septic shock is characterized by vasodilation (low
SVR) and a compensatory increase in cardiac output.
4. Which assessment finding is a hallmark sign of neurogenic shock?
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Bradycardia
D. Cool, clammy skin
Answer: C
Rationale: Neurogenic shock is unique because it causes bradycardia due to the loss of
sympathetic tone, whereas other shocks usually cause tachycardia.
5. Using the Parkland Formula, calculate the total fluid resuscitation needed in
the first 24 hours for a 70kg patient with 40% TBSA burns.
A. 11,200 mL
B. 8,400 mL
C. 5,600 mL
D. 14,000 mL
Answer: A
Rationale: Parkland Formula: 4mL x weight(kg) x %TBSA. 4 x 70 x 40 = 11,200 mL.
, 6. When administering the calculated Parkland fluid volume, how much of the
total should be given in the first 8 hours post-injury?
A. One-half
B. One-third
C. One-quarter
D. The entire amount
Answer: A
Rationale: Half of the total calculated 24-hour fluid volume is administered in the first 8
hours from the time of the burn injury.
7. A patient with a high-voltage electrical burn is at greatest risk for which
immediate complication?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Cardiac dysrhythmias
C. Hypothermia
D. Infection
Answer: B
Rationale: Electrical currents passing through the body can disrupt the heart’s electrical
system, leading to lethal dysrhythmias or cardiac arrest.
8. Which clinical finding is most suggestive of an inhalation injury in a burn
victim?
A. Hypotension
B. Blisters on the chest
C. Singed nasal hairs and soot in sputum
D. Decreased bowel sounds
Answer: C
Rationale: Physical indicators like singed nasal hairs, soot in the mouth/sputum, and facial
burns suggest potential airway damage from heat or smoke.
