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PEDIATRIC PRIMARY CARE TEST BANK TEST COMPLETE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES.

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PEDIATRIC PRIMARY CARE TEST BANK TEST COMPLETE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES.

Instelling
PEDIATRIC PRIMARY CARE
Vak
PEDIATRIC PRIMARY CARE

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

PEDIATRIC PRIMARY CARE TEST BANK TEST COMPLETE
EXAM QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS PLUS
RATIONALES.
1. A 2-month-old infant presents for a routine visit. Which developmental milestone is
expected at this age?
A. Sitting without support
B. Social smile
C. Walking independently
D. Speaking two-word phrases
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A social smile typically appears around 6–8 weeks. Sitting, walking, and
speech milestones occur later in infancy and toddlerhood.



2. Which vaccination is first administered at birth?
A. DTaP
B. MMR
C. Hepatitis B
D. Varicella
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Hepatitis B vaccine is given at birth. DTaP, MMR, and varicella are
administered later according to immunization schedules.



3. A 5-year-old child presents with sore throat, fever, and tonsillar exudates. What is the
most appropriate initial test?
A. Throat culture
B. Rapid antigen detection test
C. Chest X-ray
D. CBC
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rapid antigen detection test is the first-line diagnostic for suspected
streptococcal pharyngitis due to its speed and specificity. Culture is confirmatory if
needed.



4. Which of the following is a red flag for autism spectrum disorder in a 2-year-old?
A. Parallel play
B. Limited eye contact
C. Temper tantrums
D. Stranger anxiety
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Limited eye contact is a key early sign of autism. Parallel play, tantrums,
and stranger anxiety are developmentally appropriate behaviors.

,5. A child with acute otitis media is prescribed amoxicillin. What is the first-line dosing
strategy?
A. Low-dose once daily
B. High-dose divided twice daily
C. Intravenous only
D. Weekly dosing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: High-dose amoxicillin divided twice daily is recommended to cover
resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae.



6. What is the most common cause of bronchiolitis in infants?
A. Influenza virus
B. Adenovirus
C. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
D. Parainfluenza virus
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: RSV is the leading cause of bronchiolitis in infants, especially under 2
years of age.



7. A 10-year-old presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. Which condition is
most likely?
A. Type 2 diabetes
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Classic symptoms of type 1 diabetes include polyuria, polydipsia, and
weight loss due to insulin deficiency.



8. Which screening test is recommended for newborns to detect metabolic disorders?
A. CBC
B. Newborn metabolic screening
C. MRI
D. ECG
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Newborn metabolic screening detects inborn errors of metabolism early to
prevent complications.



9. A child presents with a barking cough and inspiratory stridor. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

, A. Asthma
B. Croup
C. Epiglottitis
D. Pneumonia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Croup is characterized by a barking cough and stridor, usually caused by
viral infection.



10. Which condition is associated with a “strawberry tongue”?
A. Measles
B. Scarlet fever
C. Rubella
D. Chickenpox
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Strawberry tongue is a classic sign of scarlet fever due to Group A
Streptococcus.



11. What is the recommended age for the first dose of MMR vaccine?
A. Birth
B. 6 months
C. 12–15 months
D. 5 years
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first MMR dose is given at 12–15 months, with a booster later.



12. A child with asthma uses a short-acting beta agonist frequently. What does this
indicate?
A. Well-controlled asthma
B. Poor asthma control
C. Cure of asthma
D. No need for medication
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Frequent use of rescue inhalers indicates poor asthma control and need
for step-up therapy.



13. Which nutrient deficiency causes rickets in children?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Iron
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vitamin D deficiency leads to poor bone mineralization, causing rickets.

, 14. A newborn has jaundice within 24 hours of birth. What is the concern?
A. Physiologic jaundice
B. Breastfeeding jaundice
C. Pathologic jaundice
D. Normal finding
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Jaundice within 24 hours is always considered pathologic and requires
evaluation.



15. Which is the most common cause of urinary tract infection in children?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Escherichia coli
C. Klebsiella
D. Proteus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: E. coli is responsible for the majority of pediatric UTIs.



16. A child presents with severe dehydration. What is the initial management?
A. Oral fluids only
B. Intravenous fluid resuscitation
C. Antibiotics
D. Diuretics
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe dehydration requires prompt IV fluid resuscitation to restore
circulation.



17. Which milestone is expected at 12 months?
A. Crawling
B. Walking with support
C. Rolling over
D. Holding head up
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: By 12 months, most children can stand or walk with support.



18. What is the first-line treatment for mild eczema?
A. Oral steroids
B. Moisturizers and emollients
C. Antibiotics
D. Antifungals

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PEDIATRIC PRIMARY CARE
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PEDIATRIC PRIMARY CARE

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