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Ultimate AMLS Post Test Study Guide 2
versions : 100 Comprehensive MCQ
Questions, Bold Answers, and Detailed
Clinical Rationales for the 4th Edition NAEMT
Exam
1. A 58-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents
with acute onset of severe, tearing chest pain radiating to his
back. His blood pressure is 150/90 in the right arm and 90/60
in the left arm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Aortic dissection
D. Pericarditis
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Answer: C. Aortic dissection
Rationale: Classic presentation of aortic dissection includes
tearing chest pain, radiation to the back, and differential blood
pressures between arms. Risk factors include hypertension.
2. A 34-year-old female with no past medical history presents
with acute shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain after a
10-hour car ride. She is tachycardic and hypoxic. What is the
priority intervention?
A. Chest x-ray
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Oxygen and transport to ED for possible thrombolytics
D. Aspirin 324 mg
Answer: C. Oxygen and transport to ED for possible
thrombolytics
Rationale: This scenario suggests pulmonary embolism (PE). High-
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flow oxygen and rapid transport are key; definitive treatment
(thrombolytics or embolectomy) occurs in the hospital.
3. A 72-year-old male with COPD presents with worsening
shortness of breath, fever, and increased sputum production.
He is confused. Lung sounds: diminished with occasional
rhonchi. What is the most likely underlying condition?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Acute exacerbation of COPD with possible pneumonia
C. Asthma exacerbation
D. Heart failure
Answer: B. Acute exacerbation of COPD with possible
pneumonia
Rationale: Fever, increased sputum, and confusion in a COPD
patient suggest infectious exacerbation. Treatment includes
bronchodilators, steroids, antibiotics, and possible non-invasive
ventilation.
Ultimate AMLS Post Test Study Guide 2
versions : 100 Comprehensive MCQ
Questions, Bold Answers, and Detailed
Clinical Rationales for the 4th Edition NAEMT
Exam
1. A 58-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents
with acute onset of severe, tearing chest pain radiating to his
back. His blood pressure is 150/90 in the right arm and 90/60
in the left arm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Aortic dissection
D. Pericarditis
,Page 2 of 22
Answer: C. Aortic dissection
Rationale: Classic presentation of aortic dissection includes
tearing chest pain, radiation to the back, and differential blood
pressures between arms. Risk factors include hypertension.
2. A 34-year-old female with no past medical history presents
with acute shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain after a
10-hour car ride. She is tachycardic and hypoxic. What is the
priority intervention?
A. Chest x-ray
B. 12-lead ECG
C. Oxygen and transport to ED for possible thrombolytics
D. Aspirin 324 mg
Answer: C. Oxygen and transport to ED for possible
thrombolytics
Rationale: This scenario suggests pulmonary embolism (PE). High-
, Page 3 of 22
flow oxygen and rapid transport are key; definitive treatment
(thrombolytics or embolectomy) occurs in the hospital.
3. A 72-year-old male with COPD presents with worsening
shortness of breath, fever, and increased sputum production.
He is confused. Lung sounds: diminished with occasional
rhonchi. What is the most likely underlying condition?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Acute exacerbation of COPD with possible pneumonia
C. Asthma exacerbation
D. Heart failure
Answer: B. Acute exacerbation of COPD with possible
pneumonia
Rationale: Fever, increased sputum, and confusion in a COPD
patient suggest infectious exacerbation. Treatment includes
bronchodilators, steroids, antibiotics, and possible non-invasive
ventilation.
