NURSING-HEALTH SCIENCES CEA PREP FULL PRACTICE EXAM —
2026/2027 | 75 QUESTIONS | 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS | ALREADY
GRADED A+
Nursing-Health Sciences CEA Prep – Comprehensive Exit Assessment Practice Examination (Pre-Licensure Nursing
Programs / NCLEX-RN/PN Readiness) | Core Domains: Safe and Effective Care Environment (Management of Care:
Prioritization, Delegation, Supervision, Legal/Ethical Issues; Safety and Infection Control: Standard Precautions, Isolation
Types, Error Prevention, Emergency Response), Health Promotion and Maintenance (Growth/Development Across
Lifespan, Antenatal/Postpartum Care, Screening Guidelines, Immunizations, Health Education), Psychosocial Integrity
(Therapeutic Communication, Mental Health Disorders, Crisis Intervention, Coping Strategies, Cultural Competence, End-
of-Life Care), Physiological Integrity (Basic Care and Comfort: ADLs, Pain Management, Nutrition, Elimination;
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies: Medication Administration, Dosage Calculations, Adverse Effects; Reduction of
Risk Potential: Diagnostic Tests, Monitoring, Complication Prevention; Physiological Adaptation: Acute/Chronic Illness
Management, Fluid/Electrolyte Balance, Emergency Interventions), and Scenario-Based Clinical Judgment Aligned with
Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) Clinical Judgment Measurement Model | NCLEX/CEA–Aligned Format
Exam Structure
• 75 multiple-choice questions (MCQ) (comprehensive CEA Prep practice exam count synthesizing high-yield nursing
content; note: official exit exams vary by institution, typically 75-150 MCQs) • Question Format: ALL QUESTIONS
ARE MULTIPLE CHOICE (MCQ) with options A, B, C, D • Questions must be presented in bold Georgia font •
Single-best-answer MCQs focused on nursing knowledge, clinical judgment, and patient safety • Focus on evidence-based
nursing interventions, prioritization frameworks, and clinical reasoning aligned with CEA competencies • Total testing time:
Approximately 90–120 minutes for 75-question practice format (computer-based, proctored format via institutional learning
management system) • Passing score: Typically 75–80% benchmark recommended for CEA readiness and NCLEX
predictivity
Introduction
This Nursing-Health Sciences CEA Prep Full Practice Exam format for 2026/2027 reflects a comprehensive competency
assessment designed to evaluate proficiency in foundational and advanced nursing principles for pre-licensure nursing
students preparing for program exit assessments and NCLEX-RN/PN licensure. The exam measures knowledge of safe care
environments, health promotion strategies, psychosocial support, physiological integrity across body systems, pharmacologic
principles, and scenario-based clinical decision-making essential for safe, effective entry-level nursing practice. The 75-
question format provides extensive coverage of high-yield nursing domains frequently tested on Comprehensive Exit
Assessments and NCLEX-RN/PN, aligned with current NCSBN Clinical Judgment Measurement Model and evidence-based
practice guidelines. All questions are presented in Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) format with four answer
options (A, B, C, D).
1. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving report on four clients. Which client should the nurse
assess first?
A) A client with heart failure who has 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities.
B) A client post-operative day 1 following a total hip arthroplasty reporting pain as 7 on a scale of 0 to 10.
C) A client with a pulmonary embolism who reports sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain.
D) A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus whose morning fingerstick glucose was 190 mg/dL.
Rationale: Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework, the client with a pulmonary
embolism experiencing sudden respiratory distress and chest pain is the most unstable and requires immediate
intervention to prevent respiratory or cardiac arrest.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following findings
should cause the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A) Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg.
B) Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L.
C) Apical pulse rate of 52 beats per minute.
D) Digoxin level of 0.8 ng/mL.
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate. It should be withheld if the apical pulse is less than
60 bpm in an adult to avoid bradycardia. The other values are within normal or therapeutic ranges.
, 3. Which task is most appropriate for the Registered Nurse (RN) to delegate to an Unlicensed Assistive
Personnel (UAP)?
A) Assessing the breath sounds of a client with pneumonia.
B) Obtaining a set of vital signs on a stable client awaiting discharge.
C) Teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer.
D) Administering a subcutaneous dose of insulin to a client.
Rationale: UAPs can perform standard, non-invasive tasks such as collecting vital signs on stable patients. Assessment,
teaching, and medication administration require nursing judgment and are the responsibility of the licensed nurse.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the
following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse expect?
A) Hypokalemia.
B) Hyperkalemia.
C) Hypophosphatemia.
D) Hypercalcemia.
Rationale: During the oliguric phase of AKI, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium, leading to hyperkalemia.
Additionally, the kidneys fail to excrete phosphate (leading to hyperphosphatemia) and fail to activate Vitamin D
(leading to hypocalcemia).
5. A client with a history of schizophrenia is admitted to the psychiatric unit. The client states, "I see
spiders crawling all over the walls." Which response by the nurse is therapeutic?
A) "There are no spiders on the walls. You are just imagining it."
B) "I will go get a can of bug spray to kill the spiders for you."
C) "I don't see any spiders, but I can see that you seem frightened."
D) "Why do you think there are spiders on the walls?"
Rationale: This response uses the therapeutic technique of "presenting reality" while also "acknowledging feelings." The
nurse avoids arguing with the hallucination but does not validate it.
6. A nurse is evaluating the Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results for a client with COPD: pH 7.31, PaCO2 55
mmHg, HCO3 28 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
A) Metabolic acidosis, uncompensated.
B) Respiratory acidosis, partially compensated.
C) Respiratory alkalosis, fully compensated.
D) Metabolic alkalosis, partially compensated.
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis), the PaCO2 is high (respiratory cause), and the HCO3 is high (indicating the kidneys
are attempting to compensate). Because the pH is not yet in the normal range, it is "partially compensated."
7. A nurse is caring for a client following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following assessments is the
priority?
A) Assessing the client's voice for hoarseness.
B) Monitoring for frequent swallowing and respiratory distress.
C) Checking the surgical dressing for serosanguinous drainage.
D) Evaluating the client's calcium levels.
Rationale: Airway obstruction due to edema or hematoma is the most critical post-operative complication of a
thyroidectomy. Frequent swallowing may indicate bleeding. Airway takes priority over other assessments.
8. A 2-year-old child is admitted with a diagnosis of laryngotracheobronchitis (croup). Which of the
following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?
A) Drooling and a high fever.
B) Barky cough and inspiratory stridor.
C) Productive cough with thick green sputum.
D) Expiratory wheezing and intercostal retractions.
2026/2027 | 75 QUESTIONS | 100% VERIFIED ANSWERS | ALREADY
GRADED A+
Nursing-Health Sciences CEA Prep – Comprehensive Exit Assessment Practice Examination (Pre-Licensure Nursing
Programs / NCLEX-RN/PN Readiness) | Core Domains: Safe and Effective Care Environment (Management of Care:
Prioritization, Delegation, Supervision, Legal/Ethical Issues; Safety and Infection Control: Standard Precautions, Isolation
Types, Error Prevention, Emergency Response), Health Promotion and Maintenance (Growth/Development Across
Lifespan, Antenatal/Postpartum Care, Screening Guidelines, Immunizations, Health Education), Psychosocial Integrity
(Therapeutic Communication, Mental Health Disorders, Crisis Intervention, Coping Strategies, Cultural Competence, End-
of-Life Care), Physiological Integrity (Basic Care and Comfort: ADLs, Pain Management, Nutrition, Elimination;
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies: Medication Administration, Dosage Calculations, Adverse Effects; Reduction of
Risk Potential: Diagnostic Tests, Monitoring, Complication Prevention; Physiological Adaptation: Acute/Chronic Illness
Management, Fluid/Electrolyte Balance, Emergency Interventions), and Scenario-Based Clinical Judgment Aligned with
Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) Clinical Judgment Measurement Model | NCLEX/CEA–Aligned Format
Exam Structure
• 75 multiple-choice questions (MCQ) (comprehensive CEA Prep practice exam count synthesizing high-yield nursing
content; note: official exit exams vary by institution, typically 75-150 MCQs) • Question Format: ALL QUESTIONS
ARE MULTIPLE CHOICE (MCQ) with options A, B, C, D • Questions must be presented in bold Georgia font •
Single-best-answer MCQs focused on nursing knowledge, clinical judgment, and patient safety • Focus on evidence-based
nursing interventions, prioritization frameworks, and clinical reasoning aligned with CEA competencies • Total testing time:
Approximately 90–120 minutes for 75-question practice format (computer-based, proctored format via institutional learning
management system) • Passing score: Typically 75–80% benchmark recommended for CEA readiness and NCLEX
predictivity
Introduction
This Nursing-Health Sciences CEA Prep Full Practice Exam format for 2026/2027 reflects a comprehensive competency
assessment designed to evaluate proficiency in foundational and advanced nursing principles for pre-licensure nursing
students preparing for program exit assessments and NCLEX-RN/PN licensure. The exam measures knowledge of safe care
environments, health promotion strategies, psychosocial support, physiological integrity across body systems, pharmacologic
principles, and scenario-based clinical decision-making essential for safe, effective entry-level nursing practice. The 75-
question format provides extensive coverage of high-yield nursing domains frequently tested on Comprehensive Exit
Assessments and NCLEX-RN/PN, aligned with current NCSBN Clinical Judgment Measurement Model and evidence-based
practice guidelines. All questions are presented in Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) format with four answer
options (A, B, C, D).
1. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving report on four clients. Which client should the nurse
assess first?
A) A client with heart failure who has 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities.
B) A client post-operative day 1 following a total hip arthroplasty reporting pain as 7 on a scale of 0 to 10.
C) A client with a pulmonary embolism who reports sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain.
D) A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus whose morning fingerstick glucose was 190 mg/dL.
Rationale: Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) prioritization framework, the client with a pulmonary
embolism experiencing sudden respiratory distress and chest pain is the most unstable and requires immediate
intervention to prevent respiratory or cardiac arrest.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following findings
should cause the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A) Blood pressure 110/70 mmHg.
B) Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L.
C) Apical pulse rate of 52 beats per minute.
D) Digoxin level of 0.8 ng/mL.
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate. It should be withheld if the apical pulse is less than
60 bpm in an adult to avoid bradycardia. The other values are within normal or therapeutic ranges.
, 3. Which task is most appropriate for the Registered Nurse (RN) to delegate to an Unlicensed Assistive
Personnel (UAP)?
A) Assessing the breath sounds of a client with pneumonia.
B) Obtaining a set of vital signs on a stable client awaiting discharge.
C) Teaching a client how to use an incentive spirometer.
D) Administering a subcutaneous dose of insulin to a client.
Rationale: UAPs can perform standard, non-invasive tasks such as collecting vital signs on stable patients. Assessment,
teaching, and medication administration require nursing judgment and are the responsibility of the licensed nurse.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI). Which of the
following electrolyte imbalances should the nurse expect?
A) Hypokalemia.
B) Hyperkalemia.
C) Hypophosphatemia.
D) Hypercalcemia.
Rationale: During the oliguric phase of AKI, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium, leading to hyperkalemia.
Additionally, the kidneys fail to excrete phosphate (leading to hyperphosphatemia) and fail to activate Vitamin D
(leading to hypocalcemia).
5. A client with a history of schizophrenia is admitted to the psychiatric unit. The client states, "I see
spiders crawling all over the walls." Which response by the nurse is therapeutic?
A) "There are no spiders on the walls. You are just imagining it."
B) "I will go get a can of bug spray to kill the spiders for you."
C) "I don't see any spiders, but I can see that you seem frightened."
D) "Why do you think there are spiders on the walls?"
Rationale: This response uses the therapeutic technique of "presenting reality" while also "acknowledging feelings." The
nurse avoids arguing with the hallucination but does not validate it.
6. A nurse is evaluating the Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results for a client with COPD: pH 7.31, PaCO2 55
mmHg, HCO3 28 mEq/L. How should the nurse interpret these results?
A) Metabolic acidosis, uncompensated.
B) Respiratory acidosis, partially compensated.
C) Respiratory alkalosis, fully compensated.
D) Metabolic alkalosis, partially compensated.
Rationale: The pH is low (acidosis), the PaCO2 is high (respiratory cause), and the HCO3 is high (indicating the kidneys
are attempting to compensate). Because the pH is not yet in the normal range, it is "partially compensated."
7. A nurse is caring for a client following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following assessments is the
priority?
A) Assessing the client's voice for hoarseness.
B) Monitoring for frequent swallowing and respiratory distress.
C) Checking the surgical dressing for serosanguinous drainage.
D) Evaluating the client's calcium levels.
Rationale: Airway obstruction due to edema or hematoma is the most critical post-operative complication of a
thyroidectomy. Frequent swallowing may indicate bleeding. Airway takes priority over other assessments.
8. A 2-year-old child is admitted with a diagnosis of laryngotracheobronchitis (croup). Which of the
following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect?
A) Drooling and a high fever.
B) Barky cough and inspiratory stridor.
C) Productive cough with thick green sputum.
D) Expiratory wheezing and intercostal retractions.
